Latest Infosys Aptitude Question SOLUTION: In the Garbar Jhala, Aminabad a shopkeeper first raises the price of Jewellery by x% then he decreases the new price by x%. After one such up down cycle, the price of a Jewellery d

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In the Garbar Jhala, Aminabad a shopkeeper first raises the price of Jewellery by x% then he decreases the new price by x%. After one such up down cycle, the price of a Jewellery decreased by Rs. 21025. After a second updown cycle the jewellery was sold for Rs. 484416. What was the original price of the jewellery

Asked In Infosys MATHUMITHA.G.S (9 years ago)

Solved RAHUL UBHALE Read Solution (6)

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Read Solution (6) :

MUNISH YADAV  (9 years ago)

Let the original price be "p":
1st cycle:
Up by x% means new price is p+px/100
Down by x% on current price means new price is (p+px/100)-(p+px/100)x/100
Price after one updown cycle is (p-21025)
Thus, (p+px/100)-(p+px/100)x/100=(p-21025)=p'(let)......(1)
2nd cycle:
Up by x% means new price is p'+p'x/100
Down by x% on current price means new price is (p'+p'x/100)-(p'+p'x/100)x/100
Price after second updown cycle is 484416.
Thus, (p'+p'x/100)-(p'+p'x/100)x/100=484416......(2)
Putting value of p'=p-20125 in eqn (2)and dividing (1)&(2) to eliminate x. We get a quadratic egn in p: p^2-526466p-(21025)^2=0
The eqn has real roots in the form 525625, 841. (Ans)

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RAHUL UBHALE  (9 years ago)

suppose original price of jewellery is y

price after decreasing X% from y is

y-(y*X/100)=21025 ......(1)

price after increasing X% in y is

y+(y*X/100)=484416 .......(2)

lets assume
(y*X/100)=m

there fore y-m=21025 .........(1)
and y+m=484416 ........(2)

by solving these two simultaneous equations we got
2y=505441

y=505441/2=252720.5

so original price of jewellery is 252750.5

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (16) | No (26)  

Titash Sengupta  (6 years ago)

let x=20%, c.p=100
1st cycle: overall loss incurred as price raises by same percent x=20(assumed)
overall loss be l
by formula:-l=(20*20)/100=4%(loss)
since c.p assumed is 100, loss is 4, s.p will be 96
in question 21025 is loss in 1st cycle
apply unitary method:
loss 4->cp 100
loss 1->cp 100/4
loss 21025->cp 100/4*21025=Rs525625 ans

p.s: 2nd cycle not required

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jatin goyal  (9 years ago)

1st cycle
X*x/(1+x)=X'
X'=X-484416
2nd Cycle
X'x/(1+x)=X''=484416=696*696

Now X can be figure out

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (1) | No (1)  

deepika  (9 years ago)

plzzz sumone explain wat is d ryt answer

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Medi Lethesh  (8 years ago)

whenever this type of price deviation occurs the formula to be used is x^2/100 indicates the profit or loss on the product.
i.e.
c.p.-x^2/100=21025
i.e. cp=21025+4461
i.e. c.p.= 25486. (It is the answer i got as I didnt got any perfect answers among the solutions. )

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