If a pipe can fill the tank within 6hrs.But due to leak it takes 30 min more. Now the tank is full then how much time will it take to empty the tank throught the leak?
a) 78 b) 56 c) 66 d) 59

• let the flow of pipe is 1 lit/hr
  so in 6 hrs 6 lites water is filled which is the capacity of tank(6 lit.)
  it takes 0.5 hrs extra for leak.
  which means water is leaking at the rate 0.5 liter per 6.5 hrs (because in 6 hrs tank without leak will fill 6 lit of water and if leaking it will take 6.5 hrs so extra water filled in 0.5 hrs is half liter which is the compensation of leaking in 6.5 hrs)
  so 0.5 liters in 6.5 hrs leaking time required for 1 liter to leak is 13
  therefore time required for 6 liters = 6*13=78[answer.]
• 12 years agoHelpfull: Yes(54) No(3)
• 78 IS THE ANSWER
  
• 13 years agoHelpfull: Yes(14) No(12)
• let the flow of pipe is 1 lit/hr
  so in 6 hrs 6 lites water is filled which is the capacity of tank(6 lit.)
  it takes 0.5 hrs extra for leak.
  which means water is leaking at the rate 0.5 liter per 6.5 hrs (because in 6 hrs tank without leak will fill 6 lit of water and if leaking it will take 6.5 hrs so extra water filled in 0.5 hrs is half liter which is the compensation of leaking in 6.5 hrs)
  so 0.5 liters in 6.5 hrs leaking time required for 1 liter to leak is 13
  therefore time required for 12 liters = 6.5*12=78[answer.]
• 12 years agoHelpfull: Yes(11) No(3)
• here the pipe can fill one part in 1/ 6mins and the other piper can empty it in 30 more mins.. so 6hrs+30 mins will give u 2/13... so 1/6-1/(2/13) = 1/6-2/13 taking lcm we get (13-12)/78.. so ans is 78...
• 12 years agoHelpfull: Yes(8) No(0)
• let capacity be 6 litre.
  then time to fill this tank is 6 hour ,when there is no leakage .
  so in 1 hour it fills 1 litre.
  
  when leakage is there then it takes 6.5 hour to fill 6 litre
  
  so in 1 hour it fills 6/6.5 litre.
  
  time to vacate will be 1-(6/6.5)=1/13 litre in 1 hour
  time to vacate 1 litre will be 13 hour.
  for 6 litre it will be 13*6 =78
• 8 years agoHelpfull: Yes(4) No(1)
• 78 is answer
• 12 years agoHelpfull: Yes(3) No(0)
• 78....the answer
• 13 years agoHelpfull: Yes(2) No(3)
• early pipe takes 6hrs to fill the tank
  but due to leakage it takes 13/2hrs
  that means pipe will work for 13/2hrs with 1/6 efficiency.
  and leakage pipe will also work for 13/2hrs wit -ve efficiency.
  so...
  (1/6)(13/2)-n(13/2)=1
  by solving this we get n=1/78
  by inversing this we get the ans i.e., 78
• 12 years agoHelpfull: Yes(1) No(2)