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Suppose Mr. X works for company A. The company grants 1000 shares to Mr. X in 2008. At that point each share is worth Rs. 100. In 2010, he decides to sell his entire stake and at that point, the value is Rs. 120 per share. The government declares that the tax to be paid is 10% of the entire profit. Due to the inflation, the value of a rupee in 2010 is equivalent to 0.8 of a rupee in 2008. In this scenario, which of the following model indicates the actual tax to be paid by the investor?
option
A. 120 Rs at 2010 value " 100 Rs at 2008 value
B. 120 Rs at 2010 value " 100 Rs at 2008 value * (1 Re at 2010 value / 0.8 Re at 2008 value)
C. 120 Rs at 2008 value " 100 Rs at 2010 value * (1 Re at 2008 value / 0.9 Re at 2010 value)
D. 100 Rs at 2010 value " 120 Rs at 2008 value * (1 Re at 2010 value / 0.8 Re at 2008 value)
Read Solution (Total 4)
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- B. 120 Rs at 2010 value " 100 Rs at 2008 value * (1 Re at 2010 value / 0.8 Re at 2008 value)
- 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(10) No(3)
- can any one tell me what dis " mark indicate....
- 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(6) No(1)
- b is the answer.. apply verification process
- 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(5) No(0)
- 8 rs of 2008 is equql to 10 rs of 2010 so 80 rs of 2008 is equal to 100 rs of 2010
so ans: b - 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(0) No(1)
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