A cost price of 20 pens is equal to the selling price of 25 pens. The loss percent in the transaction is?
[A] 13%
[C] 20%
[B] 25%
[D] 22%

• Formula is :- If the CP of M articles = SP of N articles then the
  
  % profit/loss = {(m-n)/ n } *100 = {(20-25)/ 25 } *100 = -5/25 * 100 =-20%
  
  -ve sign implies it is a loss of 20%
• 10 years agoHelpfull: Yes(14) No(0)
• let the c.p of 1pen is Rs.1;
  then c.p of 25 pens is Rs.25
  S.p of 25 pens is equal to c.p of 20 pens=R.s20
  loss%=(1-(S.p/C.p))*100-->(1-20/25)*100=20%
• 10 years agoHelpfull: Yes(4) No(6)
• cp of 25pen=25. sp of 25pen=c.p of 20pen=20. then..1-loss=c.p-s.p (25-20=5) and loss %=loss ×100/c.p (5×100/25=20%)
• 9 years agoHelpfull: Yes(0) No(0)
• Formula is (M-N)/N*100 Where M=cost price and N=selling price
  here m=20 and n=25
  now a/c to formula (20-25)/25*100= -5/25*100= -20% -ve sign indicate the loss
• 8 years agoHelpfull: Yes(0) No(0)
• cp of 20 pen= sp of 25 pain;
  sp/cp=(20/25)=.8
  means 20%loss
• 6 years agoHelpfull: Yes(0) No(0)
• Let the cost price of the 20 pens be #100.
  Cost of each pen=#100/20=#5
  Selling price of each 25 pens sold=#100/25=#4.
  
  %LOSS:
  If cost of each pen. = 5=100%
  ..selling price of each pen. = 4= ?%.
  
  Cross multiply:5? =400
  ?=80%
  So,%loss= 100%-80%=20%
• 5 years agoHelpfull: Yes(0) No(0)
• 22%
  because qkdd
• 3 years agoHelpfull: Yes(0) No(0)
• Everyone is wrong, this is because Loss % is (CP-SP)/CP*100. So here, 20-25/20*100= -5/20*100= -1/4*100= -100/20= -25. So, the answer is 25.
• 1 year agoHelpfull: Yes(0) No(0)