M4maths Previous Puzzles

24 Aug 2016 Code for MONU

If
ASHU = 82
RAM = 36
SOHAN = 70
then
MONU = ?

OPtion

1) 102
2) 94
3) 52
4) 98
5) 82
6) 88
7) 72
8) 68
9) 78
10)None of these

Solution

A(1), B(2), C(3), D(4), E(5), F(6), G(7), H(8), I(9), J(10), K(11), L(12), M(13), N(14), O(15), P(16), Q(17), R(18), S(19), T(20), U(21), V(22), W(23), X(24), Y(25), Z(26)
According to the positional values word
ASHU = 1, 19, 8, 21
Code is [Sum of numbers + mod (even integers sum - odd integers sum)]
= 49 + |8 - 41|
= 49 + 33
= 82
RAM = 18+1+13 + |18-14| = 32 + 4 = 36
SOHAN = 19+15+8+1+14 + |22-35| = 57+13 = 70
Similarly
MONU = 13+15+14+21 + |14-49| = 63+35 = 98
Option 4)

Correct Option: 4 Best Solution (3)

Dr.Dipin Singh   8 years AGO

ASHU ---- 1 19 8 21
sum of odd numbers = 1+19+21=41
sum of even numbers=8
as 41 >8, code is 41x2=82

Similarly for other codes

for MONU....... 13 15 14 21
sum of odd numbers= 49
Sum of even numbers=14
as 49>14,
code for MONU....49*2=98

Like? Yes (8) | No (5)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

In ASHU,
A=1,S=19,H=8,U=21 [ Positional values of the letters of the word ASHU ]
ASHU = 1+19+8+21 + MOD(sum of even integers - sum of odd integers)
=49 + |8 - 41| = 49+33 = 82
Applying the same logic,
RAM = 18+1+13 + |18 - 14| = 32 + 4 = 36
SOHAN = 19+15+8+1+14 + |22 - 35| = 57 + 13 = 60
MONU = 13+15+14+21 + |14 - 49| = 63 + 35 = 98

Like? Yes | No (4)  

Pargat Pal Singh   8 years AGO

M (13) O(15) N(14) U(21)
Code for MONU = 13+15+14+21 + ( 13+15+21-14)= 63+35=98

Like? Yes | No (7)  

23 Aug 2016 Discount

The banker's discount on Rs.3200 at 6% is the same as the true discount on Rs.3248 for the same time and at the same rate. Then, the time is

OPtion

1) 2 months
2) 6 months
3) 8 months
4) 1 months
5) 4 months
6) 9 months
7) 10 months
8) 3 months
9) 11 months
10)None of these

Solution

SI on Rs.3200 = TD on Rs. 3248
Therefore 3200 is P.W. of Rs. 3248
=> Rs.48 is the SI on Rs. 3200 at 6%
Therefore Time = 100*48 / 3200*6 year = .25 = 1/4 year = 3 months

Option 8)

Correct Option: 8 Best Solution (20)

Rucha   8 years AGO

3248-3200=48
48*100/6*3200
=1/4 year
3months

Like? Yes (1) | No   

deepansh   8 years AGO

face value= true value+ discount
face value*time*interest/100=amount
6%of 3200=192
face value=3392

Like? Yes | No   

JAYA TRIPATHI   8 years AGO

SI ON 3200 = TD ON 3248
ie. 48 IS ON THE 3200 @ 6%
48 = 3200*6*T/100
T = 1/4 TEARS
ie. = 3 MONTHS

Like? Yes | No   

Baishali Roy   8 years AGO

S.I. on rs. 3200= True discount on 3248
So, (3248-3200)=48 is the interest on 3200
Hence, from I=Prt/100, we can say,
time= (48*100)/(3200*6)= 1/4 yr= 3months. (Opt. 8) (ans).

Like? Yes | No   

shaik jasmin   8 years AGO

S.I on Rs 3200 = T.D on Rs 3248
Rs 48 is S.I on Rs 3200 at 6%
time=(100*48)/(6*3200)
=1/4 year
=(1/4)*12
=3 months

Like? Yes | No   

soundarya   8 years AGO

Banker's discount = Face value*Time*interest
Banker's discount = 3200*T*6/100
True discount= Present value* Time* interest
= Face value*time*Interest/(100+(Time*interest))
=3248*T*6/(100+ 6T)
3200*6T/100=3248*6t/ 100+6T
192T= 3248-3200
T= 48/192
T=1/4
T= 3months

Like? Yes | No   

sanjeet kumar   8 years AGO

Using formula we have,
3200*6*t/100 = 3248*6*t/(100+6t)
t = 3 months

Like? Yes | No   

KAVITHA N   8 years AGO

Time = (100*48)/(3200*6) Year => 1/4 => 3 Months
where 48 is BG => 3248-3200 => 48

Like? Yes | No   

akanksha singh   8 years AGO

bd=td
3200*6*n/100=3248*6*n/(100+(6n)
n=3 months

Like? Yes | No   

Ponni   8 years AGO

3248-3200=48
(48*100)/(3200*6)=(1/4) year
=3 months

Like? Yes | No   

Sangeetha Chinnasamy   8 years AGO

Time=(3248-3200)=48
=((48*100)/(3200*6))
=0.25
=1/4
=3months

Like? Yes | No   

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

S.I on Rs.3200 = True discount on 3248
Time = (100*48)/(3200*6)
= 1/4 years.
= 3 months.
Right choice is 8.

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

G RAMAKRISHNA   8 years AGO

B. D =TD
» (3200*6*t)/100 = (3248*6*t)/(100+6t)

»t= 1/4 year (i. e 3months)

Like? Yes | No   

Samjukta Das   8 years AGO

S.I. on Rs3200=T.D. on Rs 3248
Rs3200 is the P.W. of Rs3248 i.e. Rs 48 is on Rs3200 at 6%
Time=100*48/3200*6=1/4year=3months

Like? Yes | No   

Rahul Das   8 years AGO

(3248*6*T)/(100+(6T))=(3200*6*T)/100
therefore T=1/4 year = 3 months

Like? Yes | No   

Priyaj   8 years AGO

rs 3200 is pw of rs 3248
= rs 48 is on rs 3200 at 6%
time=(48*100)/(6*3200)
=1/4year
=3months

Like? Yes | No (1)  

sachin soni   8 years AGO

Let time = t(say)
Banker's Discount=FRT/100
where F=Face Value, R=Rate, T=Time
also F=PW+TD where PW=True Worth = 3200(here)
and TD= PRT/100=3200*6*t/100
hence F=3200+192t
(3200+192t)6t/100 = 3248*6t/100
hence after solving t=3months
option 8 is correct

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

SANDEEP KUMAR MAHATO   8 years AGO

S.I. on Rs. 3200 = T.D. on Rs. 3248

Rs. 3200 is the P.W. of Rs. 3248, i.e., Rs. 48 is on Rs. 3200 at 6%

Time = (100*48)/(3200*6) year = 1/4 year = 3 months

Option 8)

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

SI on Rs 3200 = TD on Rs 3248
Rs 3200 is the PW of Rs 3248,i.e. Rs 48 is on Rs 3200 at 6%
Time = {(100*48)/(3200*6)} = 1/4 year = 3 months

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Mridula Shaw   8 years AGO

B.D=(3200*6*T)/100=192*T

T.D=(3248*6*T)/(100+6*T)

ATP,B.D=T.D

192*T=(3248*6*T)/(100+6*T)
=>T=1/4 yrs
Thus, 3 months

Like? Yes | No (1)  

22 Aug 2016 Sequence

What is the next number of the following sequence
3, 5, 4, 8, 17, 15, 12, 20, 16, 6, 10 , ?

OPtion

1) 4
2) 18
3) 6
4) 12
5) 14
6) 16
7) 8
8) 2
9) 24
10)21

Solution

(3, 5, 4), (8, 17, 15), (12, 20, 16), (6, 10 , ?)

(a,b,c) => b = sqrt (a^2+c^2)

10 = sqrt(6^2 + c^2)
100 = 36 + c^2
100-36 = c^2
c = sqrt(64) = 8

Option 7)

Correct Option: 7 Best Solution (22)

Ramgopal   8 years AGO

5^2-3^2=4^2
17^2-8^2=15^2
...........
..........
10^2-6^2=8^2
7) 8 is the answer

Like? Yes (5) | No (3)  

c.srinivasan   8 years AGO

3+3=6
5+5=10
4+4=8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

VISHAL.MORI   8 years AGO

3+4/2=4
8+17/2=12.5=15
12+20/2=16
6+10/2=8

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

prashant kumar   8 years AGO

middle no is sq.root of sum of sq.of other two no.

sq of 100=sq of 6+sq.of x
x=8

Like? Yes | No   

Ankush Lakhmani   8 years AGO

Combination of every three numbers of the given series are Pythagorean triplets.
5^2=3^2+4^2
17^2=12^2+8^2
20^2=16^2+12^2
Like wise
10^2=8^2+6^2. Hence , the answer is 8.

Like? Yes | No   

Karan   8 years AGO

(3,5,4), ( 8,17,15), (12,20,16) are set of sides of right angle triangle.
Next set with sides 6,10,8.
so next number is 8.

Like? Yes | No   

yerra anitha   8 years AGO

YOU have a sequence of pythagorean triplets,with the biggest number in the middle.
So your first 3 twerms are 3,5,4
our second 3 terms are 8,17,15
your third three terms are 12,20,16
you need a number such thast 10^2-6^2 Iis its square. That number is 8.
Hence ,the next number is eight.

Like? Yes | No   

SURAJ BALANI   8 years AGO

The given sequence is in the form i.e.,
3,5,4=>5^2-3^2=16 which is 4^2,
Similarly for 8,17,15=>17^2-8^2=225 which is 15.
Hence,the next term will be 8 because 10^2-6^2=64 which is 8^2

Like? Yes | No   

Palak Jain   8 years AGO

(3,5,4) pythagorean triplet with biggest number in middle, similarly for (8,17,15), (12,20,16). so for (6,10,?) : 10^2=6^2+x^2. so x=8. therefore missing no. is 8

Like? Yes | No   

darshan   8 years AGO

3,5,4=3,3*2-1,3+1
8,17,15=8,8*3-7,8+7
12,20,16=12,12*2-4,12+4
6,10,8=6,6*2-2,6+2

Like? Yes | No   

Rucha   8 years AGO

3sq+4sq=25=5sq
8sq+15sq=17sq
similarly for 6 10 x
6sq+8sq=10sq

Like? Yes | No   

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

3 5 4
8 17 15
12 20 16
6 10 ?
12/2=6
20/2=10
16/2=8
Option 7)

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

3^2+4^2=5^2

similarly
6^2+8^2=10^2
option 7

Like? Yes | No (1)  

saiprakash   8 years AGO

Every set of 3 no.s satisfy pythogarus theorem
so 36+x^2=100
x=8

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Dhaval Vekariya   8 years AGO

3*3+4*4=25 square root 25=5
6*6+8*8=100 square root 100=10

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Maddala Prem Chandu   8 years AGO

every set of 3 numbers are pythagoras numbers

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Priyaj   8 years AGO

(3^2+4^2)^1/2=5
(8^2+15^2)^1/2=17
. . .. . .
(6^2+8^2)^1/2=10

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

Aniket Roy   8 years AGO

5=(3^2+4^2)^1/2,17=(8^2+15^2)^1/2,20=(12^2+16^2)^1/2
so,10=(6^2+b^2)^1/2=>100=36+b^2=>b2=64
so,b=8

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Om Mahesh Patil   8 years AGO

In above series consecutive three numbers are applied by pythagoras theorem
i.e 6^2 + 8^2 = 10^2

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

(3,5,4),(8,17,15),(12,20,16),(6,10,?)
3^2 + 4^2 = 9+16 = 25 = 5^2
8^2 + 15^2 = 64 + 225 = 289 = 17^2
12^2 + 16^2 = 144 + 256 = 400 = 20^2
So, 10^2 - 6^2 = 100 - 36 = 64 = 8^2
8,i.e. option (7) is the next number

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Samjukta Das   8 years AGO

Because first it is given 3 so at the end it's 3*2=6, 5*2=10 so 4*2=8

Like? Yes | No (2)  

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

3^2+4^2=5^2
similarly all are triplte
so, 6^2+8^2=10^2
option 7
!!!!!!!!#####!!!!!!!

Like? Yes | No (3)  

19 Aug 2016 Conical Vessel

Water flows at the rate of 10 m per min. from a cylindrical pipe 5 mm in diameter. How long will it take to fill up a conical vessel whose diameter at the base is 40 cm and depth 24 cm?

OPtion

1) 48 min. 15 sec.
2) 51 min. 12 sec.
3) 46 min. 35 sec.
4) 61 min. 15 sec.
5) 54 min. 22 sec.
6) 58 min. 15 sec.
7) 54 min. 6 sec.
8) 52 min. 1 sec.
9) 55 min. 15 sec.
10)None of these

Solution

Volume flown = 1/3 PI (20)^2 * 24 = 3200 Pi
Volume flown in 1 min = (Pi* 2.5/10 * 2.5/10 * 1000) = 62.5 Pi
Therefore Time taken = 3200 Pi / 62.5 Pi = 51 min. 12 sec.

Option 2)

Correct Option: 2 Best Solution (22)

aishwarya pandey   8 years AGO

Radius of the pipe = 5/2 mm = 5/2 x 1/10 cm = 1/4 cm

Speed of water = 10 m/min = 1000 cm/min

Volume of water that flows in 1 minute = Π r2 h = 22/7 x 1/4 x 1/4 x 1000 = 1375/7 cm3

Radius of conical vessel = 40/2 = 20 cm; Depth = 24 cm

Therefore, Capacity of the vessel = 1/3 x Π r2 h

= 1/3 x 22/7 x 20 x 20 x 24 = 70400/7 cm3

Therefore, Time required to fill the vessel = capacity of the vessel / volume of water flowing per minute

= 70400/7 / 1375/7 = 70400/7 x 7/1375 = 256/5 minutes = 51 min 12 sec

Like? Yes (171) | No (47)  

Sandip Das   8 years AGO

cylindrical pipe diameter is 5mm=5/10 cm
radius is =5/20=1/4 cm
speed of the water 10 m/min=1000cm/min
volume of water that flow in 1 min= (22/7)*(1/4)^2*1000
=1375/7 cm^3
radius of conical vesel 40/2=20 cm
depth 24 cm
volume =(1/3)*(22/7)*(20)^2*(24)
=70400/7 cm^3
time required to fill the vessel is=(70400/7)/(1375/7)
=256/5 min
=51 min 12 sec (option 2)

Like? Yes (37) | No (25)  

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

Let radius of cylindrical pipe be r
Suppose radius and height of conical vessel be R and H respectively.Therefore,
r=(1/4)cm ,2R=40
R=20cm,H=24cm
Volume of conical vessel=(1/3)*(22/7)*(20)sq*24
Rate of water flow=10m/min=1000cm/min
Therefore,Volume of water flowing out of the pipe in 1min=(22/7)*(1/4)sq*1000
Let time taken to fill conical vessel be t minutes
Therefore,Volume of water flowing out of pipe in t minutes=(22/7)*(1/4)sq*1000t
Volume of water flowing out of pipe in t minutes=volume of conical vessel
Therefore,(22/7)*(1/16)*1000t=(1/3)*(22/7)*400*24
Therefore,t=51.2
Thus,time taken to fill the conical vessel is 51.2 minutes
Option 2)

Like? Yes (25) | No (14)  

sruthi pujari   8 years AGO

1.Cone volume=1/3(Ï€*20*20*24)
2.Area of cylinder*velocity*time=volume of cone
=> time=(1/3(Ï€*20*20*24))/(1/2(Ï€*0.025*0.025)*100)=51.2=51 mins12secs

Like? Yes (22) | No (12)  

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

Radius of the pipe = 5/2 mm = 5/2 x 1/10 cm = 1/4 cm


Speed of water = 10 m/min = 1000 cm/min


Volume of water that flows in 1 minute = ? r2 h = 22/7 x 1/4 x 1/4 x 1000 = 1375/7 cm3


Radius of conical vessel = 40/2 = 20 cm; Depth = 24 cm


Therefore, Capacity of the vessel = 1/3 x ? r2 h


= 1/3 x 22/7 x 20 x 20 x 24 = 70400/7 cm3


Therefore, Time required to fill the vessel = capacity of the vessel / volume of water flowing per minute


= 70400/7 / 1375/7 = 70400/7 x 7/1375 = 256/5 minutes = 51 min 12 sec

Like? Yes (20) | No (13)  

sandeep kumar   8 years AGO

Radius of the pipe = 5/2 mm = 5/2 x 1/10 cm = 1/4 cm
Speed of water = 10 m/min = 1000 cm/min
Volume of water that flows in 1 minute = Π r2h = 22/7 x 1/4 x 1/4 x 1000 = 1375/7 cm3
Radius of conical vessel = 40/2 = 20 cm; Depth = 24 cm
Therefore, Capacity of the vessel = 1/3 x Π r2h
= 1/3 x 22/7 x 20 x 20 x 24 = 70400/7 cm3
Therefore, Time required to fill the vessel = capacity of the vessel / volume of water flowing per minute
= 70400/7 / 1375/7 = 70400/7 x 7/1375 = 256/5 minutes = 51 min 12 sec

Like? Yes (15) | No (10)  

akanksha singh   8 years AGO

VOL OF CONICAL VESSEL=1/3*3.14*20*20*24
VOL OF PIPE=3.14*(1/4)*(1/4)*1000
TIME TAKEN=VOL OF CONICAL VESSEL/VOL OF PIPE
=51 MIN 12 SEC

Like? Yes (11) | No (7)  

rushi   8 years AGO

Rc=0.5*diameter of conical vessel
Rt=0.5*diameter of tap
rate flow =10m/min=1000cm/min
time taken=((1/3)*pi*Rc*Rc*depth)/(rate of flow*pi*Rt*Rt)
=((1/3)*pi*20*20*24)/(1000*pi*0.25*0.25)
=52.2min
=52min 12sec
=

Like? Yes (28) | No (24)  

Naga   8 years AGO

Volume of water flow in 1 min = volume of cylinder 5mm diameter, 10m height = PI*.25*.25*1000 = 196.4286
volume of cone = PI*20*20*24/3 = 10057.14
time required to fill cone = 10057.14/196.4286
=51.2 minutes

Like? Yes (16) | No (12)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

radius of pipe = 5/2 * 10 = 5/20 cm
height of pipe = 1000 cm
radius of vessel = 20 cm and height = 24 cm
Volume of water flow in one minute from cylindrical pipe
= pi * (5/20)^2 * 1000 = 125/2 pi cm^3
and volume of conical vessel = 1/3 * pi *20^2 * 24
= 3200pi cm^3
So,Required Time = (3200pi*2)/125pi
= 51 min 12 sec

Like? Yes (11) | No (9)  

Rahul Das   8 years AGO

volume of a conical vessel =(1/3)*pi*r^2*h
= (1/3)*pi*(400/2)^2*240
=10053096.5 mm sqr
volume of a cylindrical pipe =pi*(5/2)^2*10^4
=196349.541 mm sqr
time taken=10053096.5/196349.541 =51.2 min
= 51 min and 12 sec

Like? Yes (14) | No (12)  

yerra anitha   8 years AGO

radious the pipe is 1/4cm
speed of the water is 10m/min
volume of the water that follows in 1minute is 22/7*1/4*1/4*1000 is 1375/7 cm3
soo (70400/7)/(375/7) is 51 min 12 sec

Like? Yes (19) | No (17)  

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

Time taken to fill conical vessel = (Volume of the vessel)/(Volume of water travells per minute)= (Ï€.R^2 H)/3*(Ï€r^2 h)
=R^2 H/3r^2 h= (20^2 .24)/3(1/4 )(1/4)(1000)
(400*24)/(3000)(1/16)=(9600*16)/3000= 9600*16/3000
=(96*16)/30= 256/5= 51minutes and 12 Seconds.
Hence the right choice is 2.

Like? Yes (14) | No (16)  

Rucha   8 years AGO

vo of water =22/7×1/4×1/4×1000=1357/7
capacity=1/3×22/7×20×20=70400/7
70400/7×7/1375=51 min12 sec

Like? Yes (9) | No (11)  

Aditi Paul   8 years AGO

equating volume of water flowing through the pipe and entering the conical flask, let x be time taken..
22/7*(5/2*10^-3)^2*10x=1/3*22/7*(100/2*10^-2)^2*24*10^-2
on solving, we get x=51.2 min= 51 min 12 seconds

Like? Yes (8) | No (10)  

RISHABH   8 years AGO

Volume flown in conical vessel = 1/3*22/7*(20)^2*24
=22/7*3200
Volume flown in 1 minute = 22/7*(2.5/10)^2*1000
=22/7*62.5
So, time taken = (3200*22/7)/(62.5*22/7)
=51 min 12sec

Like? Yes (7) | No (10)  

Manish   8 years AGO

volume is equal then
1/3*22/7*r*r*h=22/7*r*r*h
t=51.12minute

Like? Yes (6) | No (9)  

DHANANJAY KUMAR   8 years AGO

volume of conical vessal is =1/3(pi*20*20*24) cm3
volume filed by the pipe in 1 min =(pi*2.5*2.5*1000) cm3
time =Volume of conical vessel/ volume of the pipe filled in 1 min
ans 51 min 12 sec

Like? Yes (7) | No (10)  

Priyaj   8 years AGO

vol of cone= 1/2 pi R^2 H
vol of water flowing= pi*r^2*1000cm
=pi*(1/4)^2*1000
in x minutes=pi*(1/4)^2*1000*x
x=(400*24*16)/3*1000
=51.2 minutes= 51minutes 12 seconds.

Like? Yes (6) | No (10)  

Aniket Roy   8 years AGO

volume of water flowing from pipe=pi*(1/4)^2*1000
vol. of cone=pi*(20)^2*24=10057.14286
so,time taken to fill the cone=vol. of cone/vol. of water
=10057.14286/196.4285714=51.20000002
so,51min12sec.

Like? Yes (10) | No (14)  

codemaker   8 years AGO

first calculate volume of cylinder covered in 1min with h=10m and r=2.5cm. formula pi*r*r*h.
then calculate volume of cone h=24cm and r=20cm with formula (pi*r*r*h)/3
answer=volume of cone/volume of cylinder in minute

Like? Yes (7) | No (11)  

Surit Datta   8 years AGO

51 min and 12 sec is the answer.
That's it.
Thanks.

Like? Yes (6) | No (18)  

18 Aug 2016 Rank of the word

Rank of the word ANXIETY in the dictionary of the words formed by letters of the word ANXIETY taken all letters of the word.

OPtion

1) 320
2) 322
3) 324
4) 319
5) 313
6) 341
7) 329
8) 372
9) 399
10)301

Solution

Total words = 7*6*5*4*3*2*1 = 5040
Rank of ANXIETY (Letter are A, E, I, N, T, X, Y)
5040/7 * 0 + 720/6 * 2 + 120/5 *3 + 24/4 * 1 + 6/3 * 0 + 2/2 * 0 + 1/1 * 0+1
0+240+72+6+0+0+0+1
= 319
Option 4)

Correct Option: 4 Best Solution (19)

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

AE->5!=120
AI->5!=120
ANE->4!=24
ANI->4!=24
ANT->4!=24
ANXE->3!=6
ANXIETY
So,Rank is =120+120+24+24+24+6+1=319
Option 4)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

ABHISHEK KUMAR   8 years AGO

no of words from AE =5!
from AI =5!
from ANE=4!
from ANI=4!
from ANT=4!
from ANXE=3!
and finally +1 for last word ANXIETY
ie Rank of ANXIETY is 319.

Like? Yes | No   

Aakash Beniwal   8 years AGO

first word will be... AEINTXY
, NOW FIX 'E' AT SECOND POSITION AND THEN 'I AND SO ON....
SIMILARLY FOR 3RD POSITION...
In this way ,possible way are 5! + 5! + 4! + 4! + 4! +3! +1=319

Like? Yes | No   

Vipul kumar   8 years AGO

=2×5! + 3×4! +1×3! +1
=240+72+6+1
= 319

Like? Yes | No   

aishwarya pandey   8 years AGO

6!*0 +5!*2 + 4!*3 + 3!*1 + 2!*0 + 1!*0 + 0!*0 + 1
=319
because ANXIETY = 1463257 this no. priority is given according to for ex. as no no. is smaller than A so it is 1 then E comes at 2 and I comes at 3 and so on ....

Like? Yes | No   

Ponni   8 years AGO

AN=2*5!=240
ANI=ANE=ANT=3*4!=72
ANXE=3!=6
ANXIETY=1
=240+72+6+1
=319

Like? Yes | No   

aishwarya pandey   8 years AGO

A N X I E T Y
1 4 6 3 2 5 7................ i)

0 2 3 1 0 0 0 ......... ii) THIS PRIORITY IS GIVEN BASED ON NO. OF LOWEST TERMS AFTER A NO. for eg as no no. is less than 1 after so A gets 0 and N gets 2 because there are two no. 3 and 2 less than 4 (seen from i) and so on and then appoint them as
A N X I E T Y
6! 5! 4! 3! 2! 1! 0! ...................... iii)
starting from 0! from right side and then we multiply and ii) and iii)
like- 6!*0 + 5!*2 + 4!* 3 + 3!*1 + 2!*0 + 1!*0 + 0!*0
= 319
this only applies in case of non repition of any letter in given term...

Like? Yes | No   

Garima Mathur   8 years AGO

words starting with AE_ _ _ _ _ will come first.
no. of options for that =5!
similary for AI _ _ _ _ _ = 5!
then ANE_ _ _ _=4!
ANI _ _ _ _=4!
ANT _ _ _ _=4!
ANXE _ _ _=3!
ANXIETY comes after that
so rank= 5!+5!+4!+4!+4!+3!+1=319

Like? Yes | No   

Gurjit   8 years AGO

ANXIETY
alphabetical order is: AEINTXY
AE = 5!
AI =5!
ANE = 4!
ANI = 4!
ANT = 4!
ANXE = 3!
ANXIETY = 1
Therefore result is : 5!+5!+4!+4!+4!+3!+1= 319

Like? Yes | No   

Naga   8 years AGO

Words starting with AE = 5!
Words starting with AI = 5!
Words starting with ANE = 4!
Words starting with ANI = 4!
Words starting with ANT = 4!
Words starting with ANXE = 3!
And the required word ANXIETY =1
clubbing all the possibilities gives 319

Like? Yes | No   

Priyaj   8 years AGO

Ae=120
ai=120
an
ani
ane
ant
anx
anxi
anxie
anxiety
ans= 319

Like? Yes | No   

suba   8 years AGO

AE=120,AI=240 SO AN STARTS AFTER 240
ANE=24,ANI=48,ANT=72 SO ANX STARTS AFTER 240+72=312
ANXE=6 SO ANXI STARTS AFTER 312+6=318
ANXIETY WILL BE IN 319 TH RANK

Like? Yes | No   

dona m jose   8 years AGO

arrange letters in alphabetic order AEINTXY
A occure 0*6!
take n,before N there are 2 letter so 2*5!
before X 3 letter,so 3*4!
before I only 1 letter,so 1*3!
before e,t,y no letters=0*2!+0*1!
next word is ANXIETY add 1
0*6!+2*5!+3*4!+1*3!+0*2!+0*1!+=319

Like? Yes | No   

anupama   8 years AGO

the given word ANXIETY,
give the priority according to the alphabet series,
ANXIETY
1463257
and check from the starting
for ex: A
1
we have to see the no which is less than 1 , if the no is there give how many no's are there
else give 0
and come from the right->left
with the factors 0!,1!,2!,3!,4!,5!,6!...
it will be like ANXIETY
1463257

0231000-----(1)
6!5!4!3!2!1!0!-----(2)
multiply 1 and 2 eq's
5!*2+4!*3+3!*1
=318
we have to count the total word,
so 318+1
=319

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

yerra anitha   8 years AGO

given word anxiety
arranged in alphabets then aeintxy
now we have to do one short cut i sthere that is :
here n is no. of letters in the word is 7
then we have to do like this
A,E,I,N,T,X,Y and A,N,X,I,E,T,Y
multiple the n-1! to where the letter is find in the actual word ...
6!*0+2*5!+3*4!+1*3!+0*2!+0*1!+0*0!=318
we will find this 319 th postion ..

Like? Yes | No   

Rahul Das   8 years AGO

Numbering the letter of the words according to the dictionary. a-1,n-4,x-6,i-3,e-2,t-5,y-7 then find the no of letter can be formed putting a at 1st poistion and so on then adding after p&c we get =120+72+6=318
then add 1 with 318
we get 319

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Mokashi   8 years AGO

318+1=319
240+72+6=318
5!*2 + 4!*3 + 3!*1=318

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Sai   8 years AGO

AEINXTY is the actual word
So on forming it in dictionary we get ANXIETY=319

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

Total words formed = 5040
Rank of ANXIETY in the given dictionary
= (5040/7)*0 + (720/6)*2 + (120/5)*3 + (24/4)*1 + (6/3)*0 + (2/2)*0 + 1
=0 + 240 + 72 + 6 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 319

Like? Yes | No (2)  

17 Aug 2016 Interest

Out of a sum of Rs.1250, a part was lent at 5% and the other at 10% simple interest. If the interest on the first part after 2 years is equal to the interest on the second part after 4 years, then the second sum (in Rs.) is

OPtion

1) 125
2) 150
3) 200
4) 225
5) 250
6) 275
7) 300
8) 325
9) 350
10)None of these

Solution

Let first part = x
Then second part = 1250-x
x*5*2 / 100 = (1250-x)*10*4 / 100
=> x = 100
=> Second part = Rs.(1250-1000) = Rs.250

Option 5)

Correct Option: 5 Best Solution (61)

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

Let the second sum be = 50*x Rs.
Then the first one is =(25 - x)*50 Rs. (Since 1250 = 25*50)
((25 - x)*5*2)/100 = (x * 10 * 4)/100
(25 - x)*10 = 40*x
250-10x = 40x
50x=250
x = 5
Hence the secondsum is 5*50 =250 Rs.

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

shreyashi jain   8 years AGO

let the second part be x
then the first part = 1250-x
so their interest after 2 and 4 yrs respectively
(1250-x)*5*2/100=x*10*4/100
on solving x=250

Like? Yes | No   

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

Let Rs. x at 5%,(1250-x) at 10%
SI=(x*5*2)/100=((1250-x)*10*4)/100
On solving x=1000
1250-x=1250-1000=250
Option 5)

Like? Yes | No   

SP.PALLAVI   8 years AGO

let first part be x..and other part is 1250-x..calculating interests for both terms and equating them..we get each term value.
10x/100=(1250-x)40/100
x=1000
1250-x=250

Like? Yes | No   

Aakash Beniwal   8 years AGO

((1250 - X) * 5 * 2 )/100 = (X * 10 * 4 )/100
Find X

Like? Yes | No   

SANDEEP KUMAR MAHATO   8 years AGO

Given, R1=5% , T1=2 yr and R2=10% , T2=4 yr

Let the 1st part, P1 = Rs. x
and the 2nd part, P2 = Rs. (1250-x)

Now , according to the question,

(P1*R1*T1)/100 = (P2*R2*T2)/100

=> (x*5*2)/100 = [(1250-x)*10*4]/100

=> 10x = 50000 - 40x

=> 50x = 50000

=> x = 50000/50

=> x = 1000

hence 2nd part of sum
= Rs. (1250 - x)
= Rs. (1250 - 1000)
= Rs. 250

Option 5)

Like? Yes | No   

alpa sharma   8 years AGO

x* 5*2 = (1250-x) * 10 * 4
on solving x= 1000
then sum on second = 1250-1000
= 250

Like? Yes | No   

Rahul Das   8 years AGO

X*5*2/100 = (1250-x)*4*10/100
X=1250*4/5=1000
So ans is 1250-1000=250

Like? Yes | No   

R.Jayaraman   8 years AGO

amount invested be x and 1250-x
x=4(1250-x)
x=1000
and 250

Like? Yes | No   

deepak agrawal   8 years AGO

a*5*2/100=(1250-a)*10*4/100
a=1000
1250-1000=250

Like? Yes | No   

sachin soni   8 years AGO

Let first part be x and second be 1250-x
then using S.I. = P*R*T/100 we use given condition :
x*5*2/100 = (1250-x)*10*4/100
on solving we get x=1000
hence second part = 1250-x=250 answer.

Like? Yes | No   

Hemanth Sharma   8 years AGO

Here sum of 1250 is dived and one was lent for 5% and other at 10%.

Let us assume that principal for 5% be x and
principal for 10% be y.

therefore, x+y =1250

Given that first part after 2 years is equal to the interest on the second part after 4 years

Therfore ,( x*2*5) / 100 = (y*4*10) / 100
On solving we get , x =4y

On substituting in x+y =1250
implies , 4y+y =1250
therfore, y=250

Like? Yes | No   

JAYA TRIPATHI   8 years AGO

let the 1st part of sum is x then the 2nd part of sum is (1250-x).
therefore,
SI1 = x*5*2/100
= x/10
SI2 = (1250-x)*10*4/100
SI2 = (1250-x)*4/10
SI2 = 5000-4x/10
now,
x/10 = 5000-4x/10
5x = 5000
x = 1000
then the 2nd part of the sum is = 1250-1000 = 250.

Like? Yes | No   

Vidit Kumar   8 years AGO

let first sum be x and second sum be y.
so x+ y =1250.
from the situation given we get x= 4y.
thus calculating y we get y = 250

Like? Yes | No   

Gurpreet Kaur   8 years AGO

total sum=Rs.1250(given)
let first part=Rs P,
then second part=Rs.(1250-P)

(P*5*2)/100 = ((1250-P)*10*4)/100
P=1000

So,Second part=Rs. 1250-1000=Rs.250

Like? Yes | No   

Gaurav   8 years AGO

x*5*2=(1250-x)*10*4
on solving
x=1000
1250-1000=250

Like? Yes | No   

daud ashraf   8 years AGO

assume 1000 rs for first part due to easy calculation
second part is remaining amount 250
5% interest of 2 year of 1000 rs is 100rs
10% interest of 4 year of 250 rs is 100
assumption complete matches the answer

Like? Yes | No   

A.P.Singh   8 years AGO

If two parts are x and y, then
10x=40y or x=4y
and
x+y= 1250
from these eqns, we get y= 250 Rs.

Like? Yes | No   

saiprakash   8 years AGO

0.05*x*2=0.1*(1250-x)*4
x=1000
second sum=250

Like? Yes | No   

Priyanka devi E   8 years AGO

according to formula
Intererst=(Principal*no.of years*interest)/100

Like? Yes | No   

Aditi Paul   8 years AGO

Let first part be x , then second part is 1250-x
now framing an equality,
x*5*2/100 =(1250-x)*10*4/100
on solving, we get x=1000, which yields second part= 1250-x=rs.250

Like? Yes | No   

ravikumar   8 years AGO

x*2*5=y*10*4; 10x=40y ;
x/y=4/1 ;
1250/5=250
250*1=250

Like? Yes | No   

nitish   8 years AGO

x+y=1250
interest on 1st part for 2 years = interest on 2nd part for 4 years
(2*5/100)x= (4*10)/100
x=4y
y=1250 - x
x=4(1250-y)
x=5000-4x
x=1000, y=250.

Like? Yes | No   

Diksha Malhotra   8 years AGO

sum of 1250 can be divided in two parts, let x and 1250-x. now by applying simple interest formula directly n equating the two interests value of x can be calculated...since we have assumed first sum to be x, so to find second sum subratct x from 1250.
formula used
(p*r*t)/100

Like? Yes | No   

shivangi rastogi   8 years AGO

let 1st part is x and the other is (1250-x)
(x*5*2)/100=((1250-x)*10*4)/100
x=1000
1250-x=1250-1000=250

Like? Yes | No   

Sai   8 years AGO

Since x.2.5/100=(1250-x).4.10/100
On calculation we get x=1000
Second sum=250

Like? Yes | No   

Archana singh   8 years AGO

let x be the 1st part and (1250-x) be the second part of sum..
therefore,
x*5*2/100=(1250-x)*10*4/100
x=1000.
so second part=(1250-1000)
=Rs 250...

Like? Yes | No   

Ponni   8 years AGO

(x*5*2)/100=(y*10*4)/100
10x=40y
x=4y
y+4y=1250
5y=1250
y=1250/5
y=250

Like? Yes | No   

Ankush Lakhmani   8 years AGO

Let the part of money lent be x Rs. Then the other part will be (1250-x) Rs. Simply x*5*2/100 = (1250-x)*10*4/100 .On solving, we get x=1000 Rs. Hence the second sum is (1250-1000)= 250 Rs . ANS

Like? Yes | No   

JENITAPRIYA   8 years AGO

The ans is 250. Reason is that 10% of 250 is 25.
For 4 years =25*4=100
The remaining amount =1250-250=1000
5% Of 1000 is 50 and for 2 years=50*2=100

Like? Yes | No   

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

let the first part be 1000 then 5% of 1000 =rs.50
for 2 years =100
second part be 250 then 10% of 250 =25
for 4 years =100

Like? Yes | No   

A.KARTHIKA   8 years AGO

let the sum is divide in to 1000 and 250
1000*5*2/100 = 250*10*4/100
100=100 (interest is same)
so first part is Rs.1000 and second part is Rs.250
ans:- 5) 250

Like? Yes | No   

haritha   8 years AGO

x(5)2=(1250-x)10(4)

x=1000

second part=1250-1000=250

Like? Yes | No   

Alex   8 years AGO

Let first part be Rs. x
second part be Rs. y
Given x + y = 1250
-> 5% of x = 2 (10% of y) [Since, 2 years = 4 years]
-> (5/100) * x = 2*(10/100)*y
-> x = 4y
From above , x + y =1250
-> 4y + y = 1250
-> 5y = 1250
-> y = 250

Like? Yes | No   

Priyaj   8 years AGO

(1250-x)*5*2/100=x*10*4/100
x=Rs.250
ans= 5)250

Like? Yes | No   

Aniket Roy   8 years AGO

let 1st part be x
2nd part will be (1250-x)
so,(x*5*2)/100=((1250-x)*10*4)/100
=>x/10=(5000-4x)/10
=>x=1000
so,2nd part=1250-1000=250

Like? Yes | No   

THUMMALA VINEESHA   8 years AGO

using the formula (p*t*r)/100
[(5*2*x)]/100=[(4*(1250-x)*10)]/100
x=1000
sec part=1250-x=1250-1000=250

Like? Yes | No   

Tamisra Mondal   8 years AGO

let x be the 1st sum.
(x*5*2)/100=((1250-x)*10*4)/100
so,x=1000
2nd sum=(1250-1000)=250

Like? Yes | No   

suba   8 years AGO

x+y=1250
x*2*5/100=y*4*10/100
x=4y
4y+y=1250
5y=1250
y=250
so the second sum is 250

Like? Yes | No   

kirti sahu   8 years AGO

x*5*2/100=1250-x*10*4/100
aftr solving this x=1000
1250-1000=250

Like? Yes | No   

Sangeetha Chinnasamy   8 years AGO

Let the sum lent at 5% be x
sum lent at 10% be 1250-x
(x*5*2)/100=((1250-x)*10*4)/100)
x=1000
sum lent at 10% is 1250-1000=250
Ans is Rs.250

Like? Yes | No   

Pooja Pandurang Karande   8 years AGO

1000*5/100=50
50*2=100
250*10/100=25
25*4=100

Like? Yes | No   

gulshan   8 years AGO

let,
first sum=x
second sum=(1250-x)

x*5*2/100 = (1250-x)*4*10/100
x = (1250-x)*4
5x=1250*4
x=1000
now, second sum =1250-1000
=250 ans

Like? Yes | No   

saurabh chatterjee   8 years AGO

x*5*2/100=1250-x*10*4/100
solve for x and then deduct from 1250

Like? Yes | No   

sujit sinha   8 years AGO

equating both simple interest after 2 years and 4 years..

we get,
(1250-x)*5*2=10*4*x
solving for x we get x=250

Like? Yes | No   

Rajesh Gurjar   8 years AGO

let first be X and other be Y
interest on X will be = X * 5 * 2/100
interest on Y will be = Y * 10 * 4/100
on Equating Both we get => X=4Y
and X+4Y=1250
On solving we get Y = 250

Like? Yes | No   

Sohini Chakraborty   8 years AGO

let say 1st part is x and second part is (1250-x), then by problem,
2*5*x/100 = 4*10*(1250-x)/100
Simplifying this we get x=1000
hence 2nd part is 1250-1000 = 250 rs

Like? Yes | No   

vidyullatha sargu   8 years AGO

verify from the options given
as per option 5: 10%250=25
after 4 years it becomes 100
the remaining part after subtracting 250 from 1250 is 1000,..5%1000is 50.after two years it become 100

Like? Yes | No   

yerra anitha   8 years AGO

take part of amount as x;
then remaining part is 1250-x;
so using given condition
((x*5*2)/100)=((1250-x)*10*4)/100)
then 5x=1250*4;
x=1000
ie..,
x is first part second part is 1250-1000=250
so our answer is equal to 250

Like? Yes | No   

yerra venkata rajasekhar   8 years AGO

let take x as frst part then second part is 1250-x;
so using given condition we understand that
x.5.2=(1250-x).4.10
finbally x=1000
so frts part=1000
second part =1250-x;
=250

Like? Yes | No   

sanjeet kumar   8 years AGO

Let first part be x.
Then, x*5*2/100 = (1250-x)*10*4/100
X = 1000
So second part = 250

Like? Yes | No   

DHANANJAY KUMAR   8 years AGO

(x*5*2)/100=((1250-x)*10*2)/100
then x=1000
and the second amount=250

Like? Yes | No   

prashant kumar   8 years AGO

let two parts be x and (1250-x) and tehn applying simple intrest on these two numbers forms a equation
(x*5*2)/100 =[(1250-x)*10*4]/100

on solving we get x=1000 so anither no 1250-1000=250 ans.

Like? Yes | No   

SHANMUKH MADDILA   8 years AGO

let first part be 'x' and second part becomes '1250-x'
and solve accordingly

Like? Yes | No   

Rucha   8 years AGO

T1=2 R1=5
T2=4R2=10
x*2*5/100=1250-x*4*10/100
x=1000
2nd part sum=1250-1000
=250

Like? Yes | No   

Abhishek Wadhwa   8 years AGO

let one be x and other be 1250-x, equating the equations for SI putting time and rate of interest of the same, finding the value for x then subtracting that value from 1250 to get value of second part.

Like? Yes | No   

dona m jose   8 years AGO

SI=ptr/100
(X*2*5)/100=((1250-X)*4*10)/100
so, X=250

Like? Yes | No   

Garima Mathur   8 years AGO

Take one part as x and other as 1250-x.
By formula of simple interest 5*2*x=(1250-x)*10*4.

Like? Yes | No   

shaik jasmin   8 years AGO

let first part sum be x
then second part sum will be 1250-x
according to question
SI on first part for 2 years at 5%interest is equal to SI on second part for 4 years at 10% interest
i.e (x*5*2)/100=((1250-x)*10*4)/100
x=5000-4x
5x=5000
x=1000
first part sum is 1000 then second part sum will be 1250-1000
i.e 250

Like? Yes | No   

Sonali Rangwani   8 years AGO

X*5*2=(1250-x)*10*4
X=1000
Second part=1250-1000
250

Like? Yes | No   

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

Let the second sum be Rs x
{(1250-x)*5*2}/100 = (x*10*4)/100
=> 12500-10x = 40x
=> x = 12500/50 = 250
Required Sum is Rs 250

Like? Yes | No (1)  

16 Aug 2016 Time to pass a man

A train 220 m long is running with a speed of 60 kmph. In what time will it pass a man who is running at 6 kmph in the direction opposite to that in which the train is going?

OPtion

1) 15 sec.
2) 24 sec.
3) 14 sec.
4) 16 sec
5) 12 sec.
6) 20 sec.
7) 18 sec.
8) 6 sec.
9) 8 sec.
10)None of these

Solution

Speed of the train relative to man = (60+6) kmph
= 66*5/18 m/sec = 55/3 m/sec
Time taken by the train to cross the man
= Time taken by it to cover 220 m at 55/3 m/sec
= 220*3/55 = 660/55 = 12 sec.

Option 5)

Correct Option: 5 Best Solution (77)

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

Speed of the Train = 60Kmph
Speed of the Man = 6Kmph
Relative Speed =60 + 6 = 66Kmph (Opposite Direction)
Speed per Second = (66 * 5)/18
= 55/3
Time taken to cross each other = (Length of the Train)/Speed per Second = 220 / (55/3)
= (220*3)/55
= 4 * 3 = 12
Hence the right choice is 5.

Like? Yes (10) | No (3)  

RITIK RANJAN   8 years AGO

we know the basic formula:- distance=speed*time.
now, here length of the train=220 m
speed of the train=60 kmph
speed of the man=6 kmph
since, the man is running in opposite direction to that of the train. so, speed gets added. thus, speed becomes 66 kmph.
we convert this speeed into m/s. since the options are in seconds. we know the convresion rule of converting kmph into m/s. so, 66 kmph=66*5/18 that results 55/3 m/s.
now, putting it into the formula d=s*t
we have, length of the train=220 m
and speed=55/3 m/s.
thus, after putting these values in formula and calculating..we get the time as 12 seconds which is the required answer.
and speed

Like? Yes (6) | No (2)  

shreyashi jain   8 years AGO

relative speed of man w.r.t train = 6+60 = 66 kmph
time = distance/speed
hence time = 220/(66*(5/18))= 12 sec

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Sandip Das   8 years AGO

relative speed of train and man is (60+6)=66 kmph
=(55/3) m/s
train length=distance=220 m
man pass the train at= 220/(55/3)
=12 sec (option 5)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Sohini Chakraborty   8 years AGO

66000 m is travelled in 60*60 sec
1 m " " " 3600/66000 s
220 M " " " 3600*220/66000 s = 12 sec

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Priyaj   8 years AGO

ans= 12 sec
relative speed=60+6km/h
=66*5/18
=55/3
time taken= 220*3/55
=12 sec

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Vipul kumar   8 years AGO

Since boh running in the opposite direction so using relativity speed will be added
i.e. speed=60+6 kmhr
=66×5/18 ms

total distance = 220
time =distance / speed
= 220/(66×5/18)
= (220×18)/(5×66)
= 12 sec

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sachin soni   8 years AGO

using relative speed concept
net speed = 60+6 = 66kmph = 55/3 m/s
hence time = distance/speed = 220/(55/3)=12 seconds

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

sanjeet kumar   8 years AGO

Distance =220m
Net speed = 60 + 6 = 66kmph i.e. 330/18mps
So time taken to cross = 220/330*18 =12s

Like? Yes | No   

yerra anitha   8 years AGO

SPEED IS IN OPPOSITE DIRECION SO 60KMPH+6KMPH=66KMPH ,IN MPS 18.33MPS. TIME=DISTANCE/SPEED.SO T=220/18.33=12S

Like? Yes | No   

alpa sharma   8 years AGO

D=S*T
they are moving in opposite direction so speed= 66 kmph
220= 66*1000/3600 *t
on solving T=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

prashant kumar   8 years AGO

total relative velocity=(60+6)*5/18(m/s)
total distance =220m
time = dist/speed=12secs

Like? Yes | No   

R.Jayaraman   8 years AGO

relative speed=66km
=66×60×60secs
time=220×1/66×6×6
=12secs

Like? Yes | No   

puneet mahawar   8 years AGO

relative speed=60+6=66kmph OR 66*5/18=55/3
t=d/s
t=220/55/3=12sec

Like? Yes | No   

Aniket Roy   8 years AGO

speed of train in m/s=60*(5/18)=50/3m/s
speed of man in m/s=6*(5/18)=5/3m/s
net speed of train=50/3-(-5/3)=55/3m/s
so,time =d/s=220/(55/3)=12s

Like? Yes | No   

Nitish kesarwani   8 years AGO

since train is moving in opposite direction
its speed is added 60+6kmph=in meter/sec it become
55/3
apply formula t=d/s=( 220/(55/3))

Like? Yes | No   

JAYA TRIPATHI   8 years AGO

S1 = 60KM/H = 50/30M/SEC
S2 = 6KM/H = 5/3M/SEC
L1 = 220MTR
L2 = 0
T = ?
S2+S2 = L1+L2/T
50/3+5/3 = 220/T
55/3 = 220/T
=> T = 220*3/55
T = 660/55
T = 12SEC.

Like? Yes | No   

Abhijna s   8 years AGO

total speed= 60+6 km/hr (because, moving in opposite direction)
=66*5/18 m/sec =55/3 m/sec
time= distance/ total speed
=220*3/55
=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Priya   8 years AGO

distance covered by train in passing the man=220m
relative speed=60+6=66kmph=110/6 mps
time taken=220/110*6=12sec

Like? Yes | No   

Mohan   8 years AGO

length to be covered=220m,
relative velocity=60+6 kmph=55/3mps
time=220/(55/3)+12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Vidit Kumar   8 years AGO

use relative speed and give the speed of man to train in opposite direction. THan simply use speed * time = distance.
Convert the speed into m/s.

Like? Yes | No   

Abhishek Lucky   8 years AGO

distance = 220kmph
relative speed =60+6=66kmph=110/6mps
time=distance/speed
=220/(110/6)
=12sec

Like? Yes | No   

ashutosh paikaray   8 years AGO

relative speed =(60+6)kmph
66kmph=66*(5/18)m/sec=55/3 m/sec
velocity=displacement/time
time=displacement /relative velocity
i.e time=220/(55/3)sec
=12sec

Like? Yes | No   

Akshay Kumar Shaw   8 years AGO

Relative Speed between train and man= 60+6=66 kmph=(66*5)/18=55/3 m/sec
Time taken to pass the man= (220*3)/55= 12 sec.
So, the answer is Option 5) 12 sec.

Like? Yes | No   

Naga   8 years AGO

distance = 220m
speed of the train = 60+6 kmph
66000m = 60*60 seconds
1m = 60*60/66000
220m = (60*60/66000)*220
=12

Like? Yes | No   

suba   8 years AGO

60kmph=50/3 mpsec
6kmph=5/3 mpsec
adding this two we get 55/3
220*3/55=12secs

Like? Yes | No   

Vamsi Krishna Reddy Lingareddy   8 years AGO

speed=60+6
=66kmph
=66*5/18 mps
=55/3 mps

time=length/speed
=220/(55/3)
=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Rishabh Goel   8 years AGO

relative speed = 60+6 = 66kmph
=66*5/18 mps
time=distance /speed
= 220*18/(66*5)

=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Gaurav kumar   8 years AGO

speed of the train relative to man=(60+6)km/h=66km/h
66*5/18=(55/3)m/sec
time taken to pass the man=(220*3/55)=12sec

Like? Yes | No   

Gowtham   8 years AGO

time= train length / train speed + man speed

time= 220 / (60+6 )*5/18 = 220*18 / 66*5 = 12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

S Meesum Hyder   8 years AGO

speed of train relative to man=(60+6)km/hr=66km/hr
=[66*5/18]m/s=55/3 m/sec
Time taken to pass the man=220*3/55
=660/55 m/sec
=12

Like? Yes | No   

Dhaval Vekariya   8 years AGO

opposite direction=60+6=66kmph
66*5/18=18.33m/s
220/18.33=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Nirbhay chaudhari   8 years AGO

Here train and men going opposite then its velocity 60+6 and then put it in time=distance/velocity

Like? Yes | No   

Hemavathy Nangan   8 years AGO

time = distance/speed
distance = 220 m
speed = (60+6)*5/18=18.333
time = 220/18.33
= 12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

veena   8 years AGO

Relative speed = 60+6 = 66km/hr

66km/hr*(5/18) m/s

=55/3 m/s

T=D/S
T=220/(55/3)
T=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

M.Stella Jebarani   8 years AGO

d/s=t
opposite direction so +
convert km/hr into m/sec
t=220/(66*5/18)
t=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

SUSANTA KUMAR DAS   8 years AGO

length of train/relative speed of both=220/66*(5/18)=12 sec
convert km to m multiply by 5/18(convert to same unit)

Like? Yes | No   

sudha singh   8 years AGO

total distance to be covered is 220m
total speed is 66kmph we will convert this in ms and then divide total distance by total speed

Like? Yes | No   

A.KARTHIKA   8 years AGO

Speed of the train relative to man is,
=(60+6)kmph = 66kmph
time in m/sec
= (66*5/18) m/sec
= 55/3 m/sec
Time when train cross the man is,
= 220/(55/3) = 220*3/55
= 12 sec
ans is 5) 12sec

Like? Yes | No   

Rakesh   8 years AGO

Relative speed will be 60+6=66 (opposite direction)
distance 220 meter
convert relative speed to meter/second as distance given in meter
66 * (5/18) = 55/3
now time= distance/speed
220/(55/3) =12 sec.
so ans will be 12 sec.

Like? Yes | No   

sumit   8 years AGO

the speed of train wrt man will be =speed of train +speed of man .
so time taken =length of train/speed.

Like? Yes | No   

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

The relative speed of train and man =60+6=66 kmph
In m/sec=66*(5/18)=55/3 m/sec
T=220/(55/3)=12sec

Like? Yes | No   

saurabh chatterjee   8 years AGO

relative speed = 66kmph*5/18=55/3mps
time = 220/(55/3)=12

Like? Yes | No   

JENITAPRIYA   8 years AGO

The speed of train and the man=66 kmph
In m/sec=55/3
T=220/(55/3)=12 s

Like? Yes | No   

DHANANJAY KUMAR   8 years AGO

Relative speed of the train when person is stop=66km/h
and it convert it in to m/s
55/3m/s
then time taken to cover this 12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

chethana   8 years AGO

as the train i s passing with a speed of 60 kmph at a distance of 220 m so first time is calculated s=d*t

Like? Yes | No   

kalyan chakravarthi   8 years AGO

lenght of train=220m(l1)
speed of train=60kmph(s1)
speed of man=6kmph(s2)
so time taken to meet =l1/s1+s2
as they are moving in opposite direction add the speeds
if they are moving in same direction then substract

Like? Yes | No   

gayathri   8 years AGO

T=distance/speed
Relative speed=60+6=66kmph=66*5/18=55/3
T=220*3/55=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

SUDHANSHU JHA   8 years AGO

Speed of train relative to man=60+6=66km/hr
Speed in m/s= 66*(5/18)=55/3m/s
time taken=220*3/55=12sec Ans

Like? Yes | No   

Sangeetha Chinnasamy   8 years AGO

Speed (train+man)= 60+6=66kmph
66*(5/18) =(55/3)m/sec
time=distance/speed
t=220/(55/3)
=12sec

Like? Yes | No   

RAHUL KUMAR   8 years AGO

Use relative speed.
S1+S2=L1/t (We add speed becoz of both are moving in oppostie direction).
convert speed in ms.

Like? Yes | No   

G SAI KRISHNA   8 years AGO

relative speed is 66kmph converting it into m/s we get 18.333 m/s substituing these in speed = distance /time we get 12sec as answer.

Like? Yes | No   

iswarya   8 years AGO

opposite direction so relative speed=60+6=66km/hr
=66*1000/3600m/secs
time=distance/speed
=12 secs

Like? Yes | No   

Nikhil Iluri   8 years AGO

relative speed=66kmph(opposite direction)
speed=distance/time;
time=220/66*(5/18) 1kmph=5/18 m/s
time = 12sec

Like? Yes | No   

Smriti Das   8 years AGO

60+6=66kmph=66*5/18mps11*5/3mps
220/(11*5/3)m=12m

Like? Yes | No   

Saba kouser   8 years AGO

opposite direction 60+6=66. den by convertn to m/s ans= 55/3 m/s. den time taken= 220×(3/55)= 12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Anup Sahay   8 years AGO

d=220 m
since both run in opposite directions, so total speed gets added s=60+6=66 kmph
t=d/s
t=220/(66*5/18)
=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Rucha   8 years AGO

as man is moving in opposite direction so speed will be 60+6kmph=66kmph i e 66*5/18=110/6
we know that speed=dist/time
t=220*6/110
=12sec

Like? Yes | No   

suhail ahmed   8 years AGO

relative speed=60+6=66
time=distance/time
=220m/66kmph
=12s

Like? Yes | No   

vasanthi   8 years AGO

total speed =60+6kmph=66kmph=55/3ms
time=distance/speed
=(220*3)/55
=12sec

Like? Yes | No   

anupama   8 years AGO

speed of the train relative to man=(60+6)=66km/hr
=(66*5/18)m/sec
=55/3 m/sec
time taken to pass the man=(220*3/55)sec
=12sec.

Like? Yes | No   

nimisha saxena    8 years AGO

Speed of train relative to man=(60+6)kmph
=(66*5/18)mpsec= (55/3)mpsec
time taken by the train to cross the man= time taken by it to cover 220 m at(55/3)mpsec = ( 220*3/55) sec = 12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Shilpi Ash   8 years AGO

relative speed=60+6=66kmph=110/6 m per sec
time=220*6/110=12

Like? Yes | No   

Aditi Paul   8 years AGO

First convert the given speeds into m/sec by multiplying with 5/18
now we have speed of train =50mps
speed of man=5mps
time taken =220/(50/3+5/3)
=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Prakhar Pratap Singh Gaur   8 years AGO

travelling in oppositedirection so speeds get added and hange it into m/sec...then solve it by distance/speed

Like? Yes | No   

shivangi rastogi   8 years AGO

hence both the speed aree in opposite dir
relative speed =(60+6) km/hr
now time= distance/speed
=(220/(1000*66))*60*60 sec
=12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

kondapuram tirumalreddy   8 years AGO

relative speed of train w.r.t man =60+6 = 66kmph
speed in m/s = 66*5/18=55/3 m/s.

time = (220*3)/55 = 12seconds.

Like? Yes | No   

Ankush Lakhmani   8 years AGO

The speed of the train is 60*5/18=50/3 m/sec and that of the man is 6*5/18= 5/3 m/sec. In 12 seconds the train will traverse a distance of 50*12/3=200 m and the distance covered by the man will be 5*12/3=20 m, which adds up to 220 m , which is same as the length of the train. Therefore the answer is 12 seconds.

Like? Yes | No   

Gurpreet Kaur   8 years AGO

Distance=220m
as train and man moves in opposite direction
so,
relative speed=60kmph+6kmph=66kmph=66*5/18m/sec
Time=Distance/Speed
= 12sec

Like? Yes | No   

Shubham pandey   8 years AGO

total distance= 220
total velocity= 60+6
velocity in m/s = 18.33m/s
so time taken to pass the man = 220/18.33= 12 sec

Like? Yes | No   

Dr.Dipin Singh   8 years AGO

Relative speed = 60+6= 66 km/hr= 55/3 m/sec
Time taken to cover distance of 220mtrs = 220*3/55 = 12 secs

Like? Yes | No (1)  

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

relative speed=(60+66)*5/18=(50/3)m/sec
Time=220/(55/3)=12sec
Option 5)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

Time taken to pass the man = 220/{(60+6)*(5/18)}
= (220*18)/(66*5)
= 12 seconds

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

Relative speed=60+6 =66 kmph= 66*5/18= 55/3 m/s
Time taken to pass a man=220/(55/3)=12 sec.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Jaikumar Bhatia   8 years AGO

Speed of train relative to man=(60+6)km/hr=66km/hr
={66x5/18}m/sec
=(55/3)m/sec
Therefore Time taken to pass the man={220*3/55}sec
=12 sec
Ans is 12 sec
Option is (5)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

kriti kumari   8 years AGO

trains speed =60*(5/18)=50/3 m/s
man speed =6*(5/18)=5/3 m/s
relative speed=(50/3)+(5/3)=55/3 m/s
so time=(220*3)/55=12 sec.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

SANDEEP KUMAR MAHATO   8 years AGO

Relative speed = 60+66 = 66 kmph or 330/18 m/s
Time taken to pass the man:
Length of the train/relative speed
220*(18/330) = 12 sec.

Option 5)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

15 Aug 2016 Sequence

What is the next number of the following sequence.
4, 8, 12, 20, 28, 44, .....

OPtion

1) 78
2) 68
3) 62
4) 52
5) 92
6) 72
7) 86
8) 48
9) 58
10)56

Solution

1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13

1*4, 2*4, 3*4, 5*4, 7*4, 11*4, 13*4 (4 time prime series)


Option 4)

Correct Option: 4 Best Solution (48)

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

4, 4*2,4*3,4*5,4*7,4*11 next is 4* 13=52.
Here 2,3,5,7,11 are primes. Next prime is 13. Hence the next is 4*13=52. The right choice is 4.

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

Vipul kumar   8 years AGO

series of prime numbers multiplied by 4
1 × 4 = 4
2 × 4 = 8
3 × 4 = 12
5 × 4 = 20
7 × 4 = 20
11 × 4 = 44
so next no will be
13 × 4 = 52

Like? Yes | No   

Testing Account   8 years AGO

4*1,4*2,4*3,4*5,4*7,4*11,4*13
4 multiple of prime numbers

Like? Yes | No   

ANIRBAN MUKHERJEE   8 years AGO

It's multiplied by prime numbers.
At first 4 then 4*2=8
then 4*3=12 then 4*5=20 then 4*7=28 then 4*11=44 . 2,3,5,7,11 these all are prime numbers so next will be 4*13=52. which will be the correct answer.

Like? Yes | No   

Sohini Chakraborty   8 years AGO

The series represents prime numbered multiples of 4.
(4×1) = 4
(4×2)= 8
(4×3) = 12
(4×5) = 20
(4×7) = 28
(4×11) = 44 and 2,3,5,7,11 is the prime no sequence whose next term should be 13. Hence the required option is (4×13) = 52

Like? Yes | No   

Gulrez Alam   8 years AGO

4*series of prime number
4*1=4
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

yerra anitha   8 years AGO

multiplication of prime numbers of 4 ie..
4*1,4*2,4*3,4*5,4*7,4*11,4*13 is the answer so 52 is our answer

Like? Yes | No   

Prateek khanna   8 years AGO

Pattern: first number*prime number=next number for ex- 4*2=8, 4*3=12, 4*5=20, 4*7=28, 4*11=44, 4*13=52. Here each time prime number increments.

Like? Yes | No   

Naveen Kesharwani   8 years AGO

the following series like this
all numbers are multiple of 4 and multiplied with prime numbers
so its multiplied upto 11
4*1,4*2,4*3,4*5,4*7,4*11
4,8,12,20,28,44
and next number multiply by 13
so next number is 4*13=52
ans is 52.

Like? Yes | No   

Aditi Paul   8 years AGO

4 is multiplied to consecutive prime numbers ..
4, 4*2, 4*3, 4*5, 4*7, 4*11..
next should be 4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

deepak agrawal   8 years AGO

4 every time multiply by prime no as
4*2=8
4*3=12
.
.
.
4*11=44
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

noor ahmed   8 years AGO

4*2
4*3
4*5
4*7
4*11
4*13
multiplying 4 with the prime numbers

Like? Yes | No   

Rahul Das   8 years AGO

Prime no multiplied by 4
4*1=4
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

SANDEEP KUMAR MAHATO   8 years AGO

all numbers in series are prime no. multiple of 4

so next number will be 4*13=52

Option 4)

Like? Yes | No   

shubham vij   8 years AGO

Here
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
The Multiplication of 4 is performed with prime numbers i.e 2,3,5,7,11 so next term will be
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

Purbasha   8 years AGO

Here in the series 4,8,12,20,28,44,?
all the terms are the multiple of 4 with the prime numbers
1)4*1=4
2)4*2=8
3)4*3=12
4)4*5=20
5)4*7=28
6)4*11=44
so the ans will be.......
7)4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

Abhijna s   8 years AGO

4 is base
multiply each time by prime no in order
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
so,4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

SUSANTA KUMAR DAS   8 years AGO

4*1=4,4*2=8 ,4*3=12 ,4*5=20,4*7=28,4*13=52(ANS)

Like? Yes | No   

sachin soni   8 years AGO

each term in the series is equal to 4 multiplied by the corresponding prime no. as shown below:

4*1,4*2,4*3,4*5,4*7,4*11, and so next term will be 4*13=52 (answer)

Like? Yes | No   

Rahini B   8 years AGO

4th table is multipled to odd prime numbers. As per this next number in sequence is 52.

Like? Yes | No   

dhikollu sameera   8 years AGO

multiplying sequence of prime numbers by 4
4*1=4,4*2=8,4*3=12,4*5=20,4*7=28,4*11=44,4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

Poulami Saha   8 years AGO

4*1=4
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
No.s multiplied with 4 are all prime no so the next one will be
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

Ankush Lakhmani   8 years AGO

In the given numbers of the sequence, each has been obtained by multiplying 4 to the prime numbers starting from 1 till 11.For instance 1*4=4; 2*4=8; 3*4=12 and so on till 11*4=44. Likewise 13 is the next prime number, so 13*4=52. Hence the answer is 52.

Like? Yes | No   

Shubham Verma   8 years AGO

Each number in the series is a multiple of 4 and each number is divided by consecutive prime numbers. So the next prime number in the series is 13 and if multiplied by 4, it gives answer 52.

Like? Yes | No   

ajit kumar behera   8 years AGO

because e all are multiple of with prime numbers.

Like? Yes | No   

ASWIN KUMAR   8 years AGO

4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
4*13=52
prime numbers multiplied

Like? Yes | No   

Akhil   8 years AGO

4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
the next number is 4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

Alex   8 years AGO

4 multiplied by prime number i.e.,
4 * 2 = 8
4 * 3 = 12
4 * 5 = 20
4 * 7 = 28
4 * 11 = 44
4 * 13 = 52

Like? Yes | No   

gulshan   8 years AGO

4/1=4
8/2=4
12/3=4
20/5=4
28/7=4
44/11=4
?(52)/13=4
that's my ans is 52

Like? Yes | No   

DEEPAK KUMAR   8 years AGO

4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
4*13=52
2,3,5,7,11,13 all are prime numbers

Like? Yes | No   

Abhishek Lucky   8 years AGO

multiply by prime no. by 4
4
8=4*2.......first prime no. is 2
12=4*3.......second prime no. is 3
20=4*5.......third prime no. is 5
.......so on
after
44=4*11......prime no. is11
4*13=52........prime no. is 13
final answer is 52

Like? Yes | No   

amir   8 years AGO

4*x=answer
if x=(1,2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19,23,29 and ....)

4*1=4
4*2=8
.
.
.
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

raghavendra    8 years AGO

4,4*2,4*3,4*5,4*11
all are primes next prime after 11 is 13 therefore 4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

Samarth Sarin   8 years AGO

multiplying 4 with prime numbers so after 4×11=44
next will be 4×13=52

Like? Yes | No   

prasad   8 years AGO

4,8 difference is =4
8,12 difference is =4
next 20,28 difference is =8
so 44 is next number is =52

Like? Yes | No   

manju   8 years AGO

Divide by 4. We get prime number series. 1 ,2,3,5,7,11 so next prime number 13.4x13=52.

Like? Yes | No   

sanjeet kumar   8 years AGO

4 is being multiplied by prime number in sequence from 2.
After 11, 13 is next prime .
13*4=52

Like? Yes | No   

Mudunuri rakesh   8 years AGO

4 is multiplied by prime numbers.
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

Kumar   8 years AGO

4*2 =8
4*3=12
.....
......
.....
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

nanaji kotakala   8 years AGO

4 multiplied with prime numbers
4 ×13=52

Like? Yes | No   

palak tandon   8 years AGO

prime number is multiplied by 4 as
4*1=4
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
4*13=52
ans=52

Like? Yes | No   

prashant kumar   8 years AGO

the sequence is all multiples of 4 multiplied with prime numbers.
4*1=4 , 4*2=8 ,4*3=12 , 4*5=20 ,4*7=28, 4*11=44, 4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

nitika srivastava   8 years AGO

4*1=4
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No   

Priyaj   8 years AGO

4*1=4
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
4*13=52
non-composite multiples of 4

Like? Yes | No   

Dhivya Subramanian    8 years AGO

al d mutiples of 4 with prime numbers are being considered . the next prime number in the sequence is 13 . so the answer is 52

Like? Yes | No   

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

4,the first number of the sequence is multiplied to the consecutive prime numbers.
4*2 = 8
4*3 = 12
4*5 = 20
4*7 = 28
4*11 = 44
4*13 = 52

Like? Yes | No (1)  

manisha singh   8 years AGO

4*1=4
4*2=8
4*3=12
4*5=20
4*7=28
4*11=44
so, the ans will be 4*13=52

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Rucha   8 years AGO

here 4 is multiplied by prime numbers such as 2,3,5,7,11,13
4*13=52

Like? Yes | No (1)  

12 Aug 2016 What is ?

32, 52, 42, 64, 72, 68, 84, 92, 88, 96, 98, ?

OPtion

1) 102
2) 112
3) 94
4) 100
5) 106
6) 116
7) 97
8) 108
9) 120
10)99

Solution

(32, 52, 42), (64, 72, 68), (84, 92, 88), (96, 98, ?)

32+52 / 2 = 84/2 = 42
64+72 / 2 = 136/2 = 68
84+92 / 2 = 176/2 = 88
96+98 / 2 = 194/2 = 97

Option 7)

Correct Option: 7 Best Solution (41)

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

32,52,42
Difference of 10
64,72,68
Difference of 4
84,92,88
Difference of 4
96,98,?
Difference of 1
Therefore,97
Option 7)

Like? Yes (2) | No   

CHAITANYA SUNKISHALA   8 years AGO

every third number is added by certain digit to get 2 digit,and subtraction to the number to get the first digit.

Like? Yes (2) | No   

gulshan   8 years AGO

32 52 42= 32+10=42+10=52
64 72 68= 64+4=68+4=72
84 92 88= 84+4=88+4=92
96 98 ?= 96+1=(97)ans =97+1=98
tht's y ans 97

Like? Yes (2) | No   

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

32,52,[(32+52)/2],64,72,[(64+72)/2],84,92,[(84+92)/2],96,98,[(96+98)/2]
That means 97. Hence the right choice is 7.

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

Take a group of 3 numbers a,b,c
Here b-c=c-a
(32, 52, 42) => 52-42= 42-32
(64, 72, 68) => 72-68= 68-64
(84, 92, 88) => 92-88= 88-84
(96, 98, x ) => 98- x= x -96
So to get the equal difference x=97

option 7)

Like? Yes | No   

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

There are 4 groups of 3 numbers
In every group,the difference between 2nd term and 1st term is double the difference between 2nd term and 3rd term
52-32=20
and 52-(20/2) = 52-10 = 42
Similarly,in (64,72,68)
72-64 = 8
and 72 - (8/2) = 72 - 4 = 68
In (84,92,88)
92-84 = 8
and 92-(8/2) = 92-4 = 88
Now, 98-96 = 2
98-(2/2)=98-1 = 97

32,52,42,64,72,68,84,92,88,96,98,97

Like? Yes | No   

Sandip Das   8 years AGO

(32+52)/2=42
(64+72)/2=68
(84+92)/2=88
similarly
(96+98)/2=97 (option 7)

Like? Yes | No   

LOK PRIYA SAGAR   8 years AGO

the difference between first and second element is double of the difference between second and third element and there is the set of three elements are working together.

Like? Yes | No   

piyush sharma   8 years AGO

taking the sequence in group of 3 from left to right

1st 3 term of sequence:
1st term + 10 = 3rd term and 3rd term+10= 2nd term

similarly in 2nd group of sequence ie- next 3 terms
1st term +4= 3rd term and 3rd term+4=2nd term

similarly for 3rd group:
1st term+4= 3rd term and 3rd term +4= 2nd term

now in last group 3rd term is missing so it has to be,
1st term +1=3rd term and 3rd term +1=2nd term

Like? Yes | No   

Prateek khanna   8 years AGO

Take combination of three, 42-32=10,52-42=10. Similarly 68-64=4,72-68=4 now 88-84=4,92-88=4. Finally, 97-96=1 98-97=1 so 97 is the next number..

Like? Yes | No   

JAYA TRIPATHI   8 years AGO

32+20=52
52-10=42

64+8=72
72-4=68

84+8=92
92-4=88

96+2=98
98-1=97

Like? Yes | No   

himabindu   8 years AGO

32+10=42
52-10=42
64+4=68
72-4=68
84+4=88
92-4=88
96+1=97
98-1=97

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

kartik kumar   8 years AGO

split the sequence in the group of 3
second-first=2*third-second

Like? Yes | No   

Purbasha   8 years AGO

take 3 numbers at a time....
1st 32,52 and 42
here 52-32=20 and 52-42=10 and 10=20/2
so here the 3rd no will be=2nd no-((2nd no-1st no)/2)
same for 2nd case 64,72,68
72-64=8 and 68=72-((72-64)/2)=72-4
in 3rd case:84,92,88
88=92-((92-84)/2)=92-4
in 4th case:96,98,?
98-((98-96)/2)=98-(2/2)=98-1=97

Like? Yes | No   

RAHUL   8 years AGO

for first 3 no.
1st no. 32 added with 10 gives 3rd no. 42 then added with 10 gives 2nd no. 52
for next 3 no.
64 added with 4 gives 6th no. 68 then 68 added with 5th no. gives 72

similarly 96 added with 1 gives the last no. 97 and 97 added with 1 gives 2nd last no. 98

Like? Yes | No   

Lakshmipathi   8 years AGO

32---->52= + 20
52----->42=-10;
20/2=10;


like wise>>>>96+2= 98
2/2=1;
98-1=97

Like? Yes | No   

R.Jayaraman   8 years AGO

(32+52)/2=42
(64+72)/2=68
(84+92)/2=88
(96+98)/2=97
so option is 7th

Like? Yes | No   

chagantiamrutha   8 years AGO

Each three terms considered as a group 32,52,42
52-32=20
42-32=10

64,72,68
72-64=8
68-64=4

96,98,97
98-96=2
97-96=1
so ans is 97

Like? Yes | No   

shivangi rastogi   8 years AGO

if the increase between the 1st and 2nd no. in the sequence is x
then the decrease between the 2nd and 3rd is (x/2)

Like? Yes | No   

Manisha Suman   8 years AGO

initially increase no. then decrease the increased no. by half of the initial increase

Like? Yes | No   

sujit sinha   8 years AGO

(32+52)/2=42
(64+72)/2=68
(84+92)/2=88
(96+98)/2=97

Like? Yes | No   

Manish kumar   8 years AGO

first two have the mean 3rd ..
similarly 4th and 5th have 6th..so on ..

therefore 96 and 98 have 97

Like? Yes | No   

Abhinav Kumar   8 years AGO

Numbers can be divided in groups of three, third number being the average of first two. See ; (32+52) /2 =42
(64+72 ) /2 =68
(84+92) /2 = 88
(96+98) / = 97
Hence 97 is correct answer

Like? Yes | No   

suba   8 years AGO

The ans is 7 bcoz take the first three terms 32,52,42
52-32=20
20/2=10
52-10=42
likewise take the next three terms
64,72,68
72-64=8
8/2=4
72-4=68
so the given last three terms 96,98,?
98-96=2
2/2=1
98-1=97 so the next number is 97

Like? Yes | No   

vidyullatha sargu   8 years AGO

divide the given series into 4 parts...each part containing 3 elements each.,,
32 52 42(the diff b/w first 2 terms is 20 next two terms is 10(half the first term) with this hint we can find the number

Like? Yes | No   

Priyaj   8 years AGO

32+20=52
52-10=42
64+8=72
72-4=68
84+8=92
92-4=88
96+2=98
98-1=97

Like? Yes | No   

Sangeetha Chinnasamy   8 years AGO

32+10=42,42+10=52
64+4=68,68+4=72
84+4=88,88+4=92
96+1=97,97+1=98
so answer is 97

Like? Yes | No   

Poonam jain   8 years AGO

52-32=20
52-42=10
72-64=8
72-68=4
92-84=8
92-88=4
98-96=2
the next difference between no 98 and unknown number will be half of 2 that means 1..
So the answer is 97

Like? Yes | No   

Rips Andy   8 years AGO

first two nos average is the third one. This logic has been followed.
Therefore 96+98= 194/2= 97 (option 7)

Like? Yes | No   

Deepanshu Chaturvedi   8 years AGO

shifting in pair of three to left every combination is a series with common difference. so last pair is 98,97,96. hence, answer is 97 as last term.
Answer (7) 97

Like? Yes | No   

Subhajit Maity   8 years AGO

4 increase 2 decrease or 20 increase 10 decrease keeping the base no constant.. so 96 increase by 2=98 and decrease by 1=97

Like? Yes | No   

mutyala surya prakash reddy   8 years AGO

in set of numbers..first set 32,52..the avg of them is 42
next 64,72..the avg is 68..
next 84,92 the avg is 88..
next 96,98..the avg is 97..
so the answer is 97

Like? Yes | No   

RITIK RANJAN   8 years AGO

every third number in the series is the sum of 1st and 2nd divided by 2. i.e; 32+52=84 divided by 2 gives 42. similarly; 96+98=194 divided by 2 gives 97 as the answer....

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

ankireddypalli sainatha vasavi   8 years AGO

in the given series two terms will increase and the term will decrease with the decreasing factor of half of the increasing factor of the previous term

Like? Yes | No   

shylajhaa R S    8 years AGO

consider every set of 3 numbers ! find difference between 1st &3rd number ! add d difference from the 3rd number to get the 2nd number !

Like? Yes | No   

prasad reddy   8 years AGO

calculate the difference between the consecutive terms in the given series it gives ,22,,16,,8,2...
it is clear from above that the -ve num id half of the preceding number. so the next num in the difference seies id -1.so x-98=-1 or x=97.

Like? Yes | No   

Testing Account   8 years AGO

incresae no. then decrease the incresed no. by half of the previous increment

Like? Yes | No (1)  

bhaskar   8 years AGO

(32+52)/2
(64+72)/2
(84+92)/2
(96+98)/2

Like? Yes | No (1)  

rajesh meena   8 years AGO

in series of three like (32, 52, 42) difference is 32+20=52 and then 52-42=10 here second one is half minus of 20 as 20 half is 10 so we subtract
just as 64+8=72 similarly 8 divide by 2 =4 so we minus it 72-4=68,
84+8=92 and 92-4=88
similarly 96+2=98, 98-1=97
so answer is 97

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Rahul Meena   8 years AGO

sum of 1st term + some difference(d) = 3rd term. 3rd + d = 2 nd term .
so . for last : 96+1=97.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Lenin   8 years AGO

the series is like this
(32,52,42), (64,72,68), (84,92,88), (96,98,?)

i) 32+20 = 52, 52-(20/2) = 42
ii) 64+8 = 72, 72-4 = 68
iii) 84+8 = 92, 92-4 =88
similarly,
96+2= 98,
so, the next number is 98-1= 97.
option 7.

Like? Yes | No (2)  

11 Aug 2016 Distance between two point

0.6 cm represents 6.6 km. If the distance between two points on the map is 80.5 cm, the actual distance between these points is

OPtion

1) 9 km
2) 375 km
3) 72.5 km
4) 245.5 km
5) 190.75 km
6) 275.5 km
7) 675.5 km
8) 885.5 km
9) 150.5 km
10)None of these

Solution

More distance on the map, more actual distance (Direct)
.6 : 80.5 :: 6.6 : x
x = 885.5 km

Option 8)

Correct Option: 8 Best Solution (71)

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

0.6 cm in map = actual distance of 6.6 km
1 cm in map = 6.6/0.6 km
80.5 cm in map = (80.5*6.6)/0.6 = 885.5 km

Like? Yes (10) | No   

nainsi gupta   8 years AGO

0.6 cm=6.6km
then 80.5 cm=(6.6/0.6)*80.5=885.5 km

Like? Yes (5) | No   

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

0.6cm = 6.6Km
Scale 1 cm=11Km
In the map80.5cm = 80.5*11= 885.5 Km.Hence the answer is 8.

Like? Yes (5) | No   

Rekha   8 years AGO

Answer = (6.6/0.6)*80.5
=885.5 km

Like? Yes (4) | No   

yerra anitha   8 years AGO

for 0.6cm=6.6km
then 1cm=11km
finally 80.5cm=885.5 so ans is (8)

Like? Yes (4) | No   

kota pravallika   8 years AGO

given 0.6cm-->6.6km
then 80.5cm--> ?
=> (80.5*6.6)/0.6
=885.5km

Like? Yes (4) | No   

Sohini Chakraborty   8 years AGO

Using simple unitary method application, we get, 6.6/0.6 * 80.5 km = 885.5 km

Like? Yes (3) | No   

sanjeet kumar   8 years AGO

0.6 cm represents 6.6 km
So 80.5cm represent 885.5Km

Like? Yes (3) | No   

JAYA TRIPATHI   8 years AGO

since, given
0.6cm = 6.6km
therefore, the distance b/w two points of 80.5cm
=6.6*80.5/0.6 = 66*805/60
= 885.5km

Like? Yes (3) | No   

SANGAVI S   8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km
6.6km=660000cm
0.1cm=660000/0.6
0.1cm=1100000cm
80.5cm=1100000*80.5
=88550000cm
80.5cm =885.5km

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Vipul kumar   8 years AGO

given that,
0.6 cm = 6.6 km
0.1 cm= 6.6 / 0.6 = 1.1 km
so,
1 cm = 11 km
now,
80.5 cm = 80.5 × 11 = 885.5 km

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sivareddy   8 years AGO

0.6=6.6
80.5=?
i am not sure.
Just this was guess

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Gulam Quadir   8 years AGO

0.6 cm= 6.6km1 cm = 11km
80.5 cm = 80.5*11 km = 885.5 km

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Althaf   8 years AGO

according to the given data, 1 cm = 11km,
so , 80.5cm= 80.5*11=885.5

Like? Yes (1) | No   

rohit kumar    8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km
1cm=6.6/0.6km
80.5cm=(6.6/0.6)*80.5
80.5cm=885.5km

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Manisha Suman   8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km
1cm=6.6km/0.6cm
so, 80.5cm= (6.6*80.5)/0.6

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Siva   8 years AGO

0.6cm-6.6km
1cm-(6.6/.6)km
80.5cm- 80.5*(6.60.6)km
=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Abhash Kumar   8 years AGO

Given,
.6 cm in map = actual distance of 6.6 km
So, 1 cm in map =6.6/.6 km.
80.5 cm in map =80.5×6.6.6 km = 885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

Sandip Das   8 years AGO

in 80.5 cm 0.6 cm present=(80.5/06)=134.167
so actual distance is 134.167*6.6=885.5 km (option 8)

Like? Yes | No   

Prakash Jha   8 years AGO

We can write it as,
0.6 : 6.6= 1:11
therefore,
actual distance =80.5*11= 885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Razen Yadav   8 years AGO

.6cm=6.6km
1cm=6.6/.6km
80.5cm=(6.6/.6)*80.5
=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

V.LOKESWAR REDDY   8 years AGO

0.6cm =6.6 km
Then 1cm =11 km

80.5 cm= 80.5*11
=885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

madhulikadoggala   8 years AGO

Given 0.6 cm 6.6 km
then 80.5 cm?
through criss cross method
=(80.5*6.6)/0.6
=885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

vishal kumar   8 years AGO

0.6cm =6.6km
1cm= 6.6/0.6
80.5cm= 11*80.5=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Naga   8 years AGO

0.6 CM = 6.6 km
1cm = 6.6/6*10
1cm = 11km
80.5 cm = 885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Alex   8 years AGO

-> 0.6 cm = 6.6km
-> 0.1cm = 1.1km

0.1cm ----- 1.1km
80.5cm ---- ?

-> ? = (80.5 * 1.1)/0.1
-> ? = 885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Vipul Puranik   8 years AGO

0.6 cm = 6.6 km
0.1 cm = 1.1 km
1 cm = 11 km
80.5 cm = 80.5*11 = 885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

Purbasha   8 years AGO

here 0.6 cm=6.6km
so,80.5 cm=(6.6/0.6)*80.5=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Shivam khare   8 years AGO

0.6 cm =6.6km
1cm=6.6/0.6 =11km
therefore 80.5cm=11*80.5=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

himabindu   8 years AGO

80.5cm / 0.6cm =134.166
134.166*6.6KM = 885.5KM

Like? Yes | No   

balindar yadav   8 years AGO

in simple way if the price of a mango is rupee 10 then the price of 5 mango is ?

Like? Yes | No   

harsh dhir   8 years AGO

0.6 cm=6.6 km
1 km=1000 m, 1m=100 cm
1 km=100000 cm
6.6 km=660000 cm
1 cm=1100000 cm
similarly, 80.5*1100000/100000=885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

Nisha   8 years AGO

Bcz 0.6 cm represents 6.6 km, so 1 cm will represent 11 km and hence 80.5cm will surely represent 885.5 km.

Like? Yes | No   

Ashok   8 years AGO

if 0.6CM === 6.6 Km
Then 80.5cm/0.6 cm=134.33*6.6KM=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Priyaj   8 years AGO

0.6cm-----6.6km
1cm--------6.6km/0.6
80.5cm----6.6/0.6*80.5

Like? Yes | No   

Manish   8 years AGO

0.6cm is equal to=6.6km
then 0.1 is =1.1km
1cm=11km
80.5cm is equal to=80.5*11=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

gouselazam   8 years AGO

=>0.6cm=6.6km
=>1cm=6.6/0.6=11km
=>80.5cm=80.5*11=885.5km
=>option(8)

Like? Yes | No   

MANUPOTI ANAND   8 years AGO

0.6cm------>6.6km
1cm-------->11km
therefore 80.5cm-------------->885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

sujit sinha   8 years AGO

1cm = 6.6/0.6= 11 km.
80.5cm =80.5 *11=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Gnanavinay Murarisetty   8 years AGO

0.6 cm represents 6.6 km
therefor 0.1 cm represents 1.1km
1cm =0.1 cm *10
so,1 cm represents 11km
80.5 cm represents 80.5*11=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

ishrath   8 years AGO

6.6 is 11 times of 0.6
885.5 is 11 times of 80.5

Like? Yes | No   

Sangeetha Chinnasamy   8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km
0.1cm=1100000
80.5cm=1100000*80.5=88550000
88550000 in terms of km=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Akshay Kumar Shaw   8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km
So, 1cm=6.6/0.6km
Now, 80.5cm=(6.6/0.6)*80.5km=885.5 km
So, the answer is Option 8) 885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

Mudunuri rakesh   8 years AGO

0.6 ----- 6.6k
80.5 ----- ?
80.5/0.6 * 6.6 = 885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

R.Jayaraman   8 years AGO

.6cm=6.6km
1cm=6.6km/.6
=66/6
=11km
80.5cm=80.5*11
=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Priyanka devi E   8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km,
then 1cm=11km.
so 80.5cm=80.5*11km= 885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

Shiv Pandey   8 years AGO

0.6cm = 6.6km
So, 1cm = 6.6/0/6 = 11km
Therefore, 80.5cm = 80.5 * 11 = 885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

shivam garg   8 years AGO

if 0.6 cm is 6.6 km means the distance in km is 11 times the distance in cm.therefore,80.5 cm is in km-
80.5*11=885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

Ankit   8 years AGO

.6 cm=6.6km
1cm =11km
80.5 cm=11*80.5=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

suba   8 years AGO

given 0.6 cm=6.6 km i.e (0.6*10)+0.6=6.6
so 80.5cm=885.5km i.e(80.5*10)+80.5=885.5

Like? Yes | No   

manju   8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km. 0.1cm=11km ,10cm=110km ,80cm=880km.0.5cm=5.5km.so the answer is 80.5 cm=885.5km.

Like? Yes | No   

alpa sharma   8 years AGO

0.6 cm = 6.6 km
1 cm = 11 km
80 cm = 11*80 km= 880
0.5 cm = 11*0.5 km = 5.5
880+5.5= 885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

AYUSH GARG   8 years AGO

if 0.6 is represent 6.6 then if we divide 80.5 by 0.6 then we get 134.16 and then multiplied by 6.6.

Like? Yes | No   

Sai Pravallika Chilukuri   8 years AGO

1km=100000 cm
80.5*6.6/0.6=531.3/0.6
= 885.5

Like? Yes | No   

B Rajitha   8 years AGO

0.6+6=6.6
so,80.5/0.6=134.16
we need to add 6 for every 0.6
so,134.6*6=805
finally for 80.5cm
we need 805+80.5=885.5

Like? Yes | No   

Rips Andy   8 years AGO

0.6 cm = 6.6 km
1 cm = 6.6/0.6 km = 11 km
80.5 cm = 11* 80.5km = 885.5km (OPTION 8)

Like? Yes | No   

Ashish Verma   8 years AGO

0.6 cm represent 6.6 km, so 0.1 cm represent = 6.6/0.6 = 1.1 km. Therefor 80.5 cm represent = 80.5*1.1 = 885.5 km.

Like? Yes | No   

prasad reddy   8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km
so, 1cm=11km
or 80.5cm=80.5*11=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Aditi Paul   8 years AGO

We can write .6 cm* ( any multiplying factor x)= 6.6 km
then .6*10^-2*x m=6.610^3m
on solving we get x=11*10^5
so now, to find 80.5 cm on map in km, we multiply it by the multiplying factor x.
hence weget885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

Parul chakradhar   8 years AGO

Here 0.6cm represent 6.6km
Then 1cm represent 11cm
so 80.5cm represent 885.5

Like? Yes | No   

kumar gaurav   8 years AGO

for 0.6cm=6.6km
=>0.1cm=6.6/0.6=0.1
for 80.5cm=>80.5*0.1=888.5km

Like? Yes | No   

ram narayan raigar   8 years AGO

given .6cm=6.6km
=>6cm=66km
=>1cm=11km
=>80.5cm=80.5*11
==885.5

Like? Yes | No   

priyadarshan kumar   8 years AGO

since 0.6 cm represents 6.6 km
therefore 1 cm represents 6.6/.6 km = 11 km
hence 80.5 cm represents 11*80.5 = 885.5 km
so option 8 is correct

Like? Yes | No   

MEENAKSHI   8 years AGO

0.6 cm=6.6km
1cm=6.6/0.6=11 km
80.5 cm=80.5*11=885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

ankireddypalli sainatha vasavi   8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km
1cm=1.1km
80.5cm=80.5*11km
80.5cm=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

karthik   8 years AGO

0.6cm=6.6km
then,1cm=11km
therefore.....80.5cm=80.5*11=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Gaurab Kumar Jha   8 years AGO

.6=6.6
1.0=11
therefore 80.5=885.5(option 8)

Like? Yes | No   

Aayushi Aggarwal   8 years AGO

Since .6cm=6.6km
So,.1cm=(6.6/.6)km
So 80.5 cm=80.5*(6.6/.6)
=80.5*11
=885.5km

Like? Yes | No   

Kamal Kant Mandal   8 years AGO

since 0.6cm represent 6.6km
mean 1 cm will represent 11 km
thatswhy 80.5cm will represent 885.5 km

Like? Yes | No   

Ankit Tandon   8 years AGO

.6=6.6
1=6.6/.6
1cm=11km
80.5cm=80.5*11km
=885.5

Like? Yes | No   

SANDEEP KUMAR MAHATO   8 years AGO

0.6 cm : 6.6 km

1.0 cm : 6.6/0.6 = 11 km

80.5 cm : 80.5*11 = 885.5 km

Option 8)

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)