The value of a machine depreciates at the rate of 10% per annum. If its present value is Rs.40500, w

JAYA TRIPATHI   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 = 4050
value of machine after one year = 40500-4050 = 36450
again 10% of 36450 = 3645
therefore the value of machine after two years = 36450-3645=32805.
now let the value of machine b4 one year would
be x then
x-x*10/100=40500,
9x/10=40500
x= 45000
again, let the value of machine b4 two years would y
then,
y-y*10/100=45000
9y/10 = 45000
y = 50000
therefore the value of machine after two years and b4 two years are respectively,
32805 & 50000

Like? Yes (27) | No (14)  

prakash sharma   8 years AGO

present value of machine=40500
and it depreciates 10% every year
so after 1 year the rate of machine is 40500*(90/100)=36450
same as after 2 year the rate of machine is 36450*(90/100)=32805
And
let before 2 year the value of machine = x
then
x*(90/100)*(90/100)=Present value of machine
x*(90/100)*(90/100)=40500
=> x=(40500*100*100)/(90*90)
=> x=50000

Like? Yes (20) | No (10)  

Baishali Roy   8 years AGO

Price after 2years: 40500*(1-0.1)^2=32805
Price before 2years: 40500/(1-0.1)^2=50000
So, opt. 6) 32805, 50000 (Ans).

Like? Yes (11) | No (3)  

ayushi mishra   8 years AGO

worth after two year :p*((1-r/100)^n)
where p is the present value=40500
r is the depreciate rate=10
n is the year=2
hence after 2 year=40500*(1-10/100)^2)
=32805
2 year ago value is:p/(1-r/100)^n)
=40500/((1-10/100)^2)
=50000

Like? Yes (7) | No (2)  

Ajay Kumar Sharma   8 years AGO

Machine Value is depreciate ....
If we to to count value After 2 years than solve :-
40500*90*90/100/100
else if count value of 2 years ago solve:_
40500*100*100/90/90

Like? Yes (8) | No (3)  

Pooja Pandurang Karande   8 years AGO

4050 =10% of 40500
so 40500-4050=36450
& 10% of 36450=3645
so 36450-3645=32805
and before is also same operation
so we get 50000

Like? Yes (4) | No   

R.Jayaraman   8 years AGO

A=p(1-r/100)*n
=40500(1-10/100)*2
=32805
and
40500=p(1-10/100)*2
after simplifying
p=50000

Like? Yes (9) | No (5)  

Amit Kr Yadav   8 years AGO

now rs 40500
next year 40500-4050 =36450
then 2nd year 36450 -3645=32805
so ans is option 6.

Like? Yes (6) | No (3)  

J VIJAY KRISHNA   8 years AGO

first consider 100 percent. there is decrease in 10 percrnt each year.so
100-----90-----81
it costs is 40500 initially
100--------90------81
40500 ? ?
by multiplying 81*405 we get 32805

Like? Yes (5) | No (2)  

karthi   8 years AGO

value of the machine after 2 years =>[Rs.40500(1-10/100)^2]
=>Rs.40500*9/10*9/10
=>32805
value of the machine 2 years ago =>[Rs.40500/(1-10/100)^2]
=>Rs.40500*10/9*10/9
=>50000
option 6)

Like? Yes (3) | No   

Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

Very simple,
present value=40500,rate=10?
1)After 1st year value =40500-10? of PV
=40500-4050=36450
after 2nd year=36450-3645=32805 Ans
2)Before 2nd year=50000 because if we subtract present value and 10? of present value 2 times consecutively then we will get 40500.
Hence option (6) is the right answer.

Like? Yes (11) | No (9)  

GOPIGA S KUMAR   8 years AGO

let the present amount be x
x=40500

1 year after, the amount becomes
x-(10% of x)= 40500-4050= 36450
2 years after,
36450-(10% of 36450)=36450-3645=32805

only 1 option has 32805 (i.e) option 6 go for it!

Like? Yes (6) | No (4)  

Tireesha Chanamolu   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 =4050 40500-4050=36450 10% of 36450 is 3645 36450-3645=32805

Like? Yes (3) | No (1)  

Thoomula sandeep   8 years AGO

The depreciation of machine for two years is 19%.
so present value is 100% =40500
81% will be 32805.
And 2 yeas back Machine value is 100%.
So according to that present is 81%.
Therefore, 81%=40500 then 100% will be 50000

Like? Yes (4) | No (2)  

shivani shukla   8 years AGO

after two year value will be
p*((1-r/100)^n)
where present value =p=40500,r=10,n=2
40500*((1-10/100)^2)=32805
before 2 year value was
p/((1-r/100)^n)
40500/((1-10/100)^2)=50000

Like? Yes (9) | No (7)  

Parveen Soni   8 years AGO

let x=value before 2 years ago
value after 1st year-- 9x/10=x-(x*10*1)/100
value after 2nd year=81x/100=current value=40500 which gives x=50000 so option 6 matches no need to even calculate 2 years after.

Like? Yes (2) | No   

SHASHANK DWIVEDI   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 is 4050 subtracting 4050 from 40500 we get 36450 aftr that the frthr 10% is 3645 subtracting this from 36450 we get 32805 the process will be added to get past 2 yrs value.

Like? Yes (2) | No   

shunpriya   8 years AGO

40500*(1-10/100)^2=32805
similarly
after 2 yrs,
40500/(1-10/100)^2=50000

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Pooja Sugandhi   8 years AGO

40500*(9/10)*(9/10)=32805
40500*(10/9)*(10/9)=50000

Like? Yes (4) | No (2)  

Lakshmi Narayanan.k   8 years AGO

40500*(0.9)^2 = 32805
40500/(0.9)^2 = 50000
therefore the opt is 6

Like? Yes (2) | No   

ishaan khan   8 years AGO

value of machine after 2 years=40500(1-1/10)^2=40500*9/10*9/10=32805
value of machine 2 years ago=40500(11 /10)^2=49005

Like? Yes (3) | No (2)  

Shweta   8 years AGO

1st year : 40500 *.10 = 4050
=> 40500 - 4050 = 36450
2nd year : 36450 * .10 = 3645
=> 36450 - 3645 = 32805
Therefore option 6 is correct

Like? Yes (3) | No (2)  

malles   8 years AGO

After first year is 10% of 40500 i.e.,4050 so deduct 4050 from 40500 we get 36450
After second year 10% of 36450 i.e., 3645
now deduct from 36450 we get 32805
The only option with 32805 is option 6.
Now, we have another option i.e., option 10 which says none of these. It is also a possible option so we have to verify option 6.
Again we have to find 10% of 50000 and i.e.,5000 so deduct 5000 from 50000 we get 45000 for one year. Again 10% of 45000 i.e., 4500 now deduct from 45000 we get 40500 which is equal to the present value. So the option 6 is correct.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Shubham pandey   8 years AGO

40500- 10% of 40500
40500- 4050
36450
again 36450 - 3645 = 32805
now for 2 yrs back
40500 / 0.81 = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

kajal jayeshKumar damani   8 years AGO

bcz the value of machine is decrese 10% per annum .......so if the value of machine is 40500 and we want after 2 years what will be..... so first year 40500*10/100 =4050 so 40500-4050=36450 second year 36450*10/100 =3645 so 36450-3645= 32805......so answer is 6
we can do same way for the last years

Like? Yes (1) | No   

PINTU PRASAD GUPTA   8 years AGO

Worth value after 2 year = 40500*(1-(10/100))*(1-(10/100) = 40500*81/100=405*81=32805

Worth Value before 2 year = 40500*100/81=50000

Hence ans will be 32805 , 50000 option 6

Like? Yes (1) | No   

anurag kumar   8 years AGO

initial price is rs 40500.
after 2 yrs, price=40500(1-(10/100))^2 i.e= rs 32805


similarly, the price of it 2 years ago is = rs 40500(1+(10/100))= rs 50005.

Like? Yes (3) | No (2)  

Suraj Kesharwani    8 years AGO

For after 2 month =(90*90*40500)/100*100
=32805
For before 2 month
(40500*100*100)/90*90=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

pugazh gandhi   8 years AGO

the depreciation is 10% per annum so for 2 years
40500*(0.9)^2 = 32805
for 2 years ago
40500/(0.9)^2 = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Dharms   8 years AGO

10% of 40500=4050
for next year 40500-4050=36450
for 2 years after 36450-3645= 32805
LIKEWISE 2 years back
the value is 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

SHUBHAM GUPTA   8 years AGO

Present Value=40500
it depreciate at 10% rate
so
after 2 years its value will be : p{ [1-(r/100)] ^ n }
before 2 years its value was : p{ [1+(r/100)] ^ n}
where p is present value
r is depreciating rate
n is duration
so
After 2 years 40500 { [1-10/100]^2}=32805
Before 2 years 40500 { [1+10/100]^2}=50000
ans is
32805,50000 6)option

Like? Yes (1) | No   

indu   8 years AGO

depreciation value for After: present value*(1-Rate of depreciation/100)^years
40500(1-10/100)^2=32805
depreciation value for Ago=(Present Value)/(1-rate of depreciation/100)^years
(40500)/(1-10/100)^2=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MD ASHFAQUE HUSSAIN   8 years AGO

i)depreciation means decreasing..where the formula stands
= P(1- R/100)^n
=40500(1- 10/100)^2
=32805
ii) asking about 2 years ago price.
consider depreciate price be 40500 & let the principal price be 'x'.
so, =>40500=x(1-10/100)^2
=>x = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Anant Mishra   8 years AGO

40500-4050=36450 ----10%
36450-3645= ( 32805) 10%
after 2 years 32805
then 6 is answer

Like? Yes (1) | No   

dokku vasu yadav   8 years AGO

accorind to the machines formula
the value of a machine after years=p(1-R/100) power of n
p=40500, R=10 n=2
value of machine after 2 years=40500*9/10*9/10=32805
value of machine before 2 years=p/(1-R/100) power of n
p=40500/(1-10/100) power of 2=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Vignesh.S   8 years AGO

per year depreciation is 10% it can be written as *0.9 ie (100-10)%of cost

one year after the cost is 40500*0.9 = 36450
two year after the cost is 36450*0.9 = 32805

for previous year we have to divide the answer

one year before the cost is 40500/0.9 = 45000
two year before the cost is 45000/0.9 = 50000


therefore the answer is 32805,50000

option(6)

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

Indresh   8 years AGO

go reverse 50,000-10% =45,000
45,000-10%= 40,500 so only one option with 50,000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

Value after 2 years=40500*(1-1/10)^2
=32805
Value 2 years ago=(40500)/(1-1/10)^2=50000
Option 6)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MANIKANDAN   8 years AGO

10% of40500=4050
4050-40500=36450
10% of 36450=3645
36450-3645=32805 so after 2 years the value will be 32805

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

SATHEESH V   8 years AGO

lets us assume the value of machine 2 years ago=100 units
then present value of machine=81 units
value of the machine 2 year hence=65.61 units
if 81 units=Rs.40500/- then 1 unit=Rs.40500/81=Rs 500/-

therefore 100 units=Rs.50,000/- (2 years ago)
65.61 units =Rs.32,805/- (2 year later)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Vishnu Prakash   8 years AGO

40500-4050=36450
36450-3645=32805
Only one option with that answer

Like? Yes (1) | No   

zee   8 years AGO

value 2 years ago = 40500 * (90/100) * (90/100)
= 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

Let x be the value of machine 2 years back .
Rate of depreciation = 10%
After 2 years =40500/(0.9)^2=50000
The value after 2 years =
40500*(0.9)^2 =32805
Hence the answer is 32805,50000
The right choice is 6.

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

Sowjanya a v   8 years AGO

Let I be the rate at which machine depreciates per annum in percentage
value of machine after n years=present value*(1-I)^2
value of machine before n years=present value/(1-I)^2
given I=10/100=0.1,Present Value=40500,n=2
by substituting in the above formulas we get 32805,50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

mdv ramana   8 years AGO

present value is 40500.
10%--> 4050 then 40500-4050=36450.
10%(36450)--> 3645 then 36450-3645=32805.

simply there is only one option with this value. so option 6.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sitamaheswari   8 years AGO

p(1-(r/100))^n=40,500(1-(10/100))^2=32805
p/(1-(r/100))^n=40500/(1-(10-100))^2=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Rakesh Kumar Kohli   8 years AGO

2 years after =
40500*90*90 / (100*100) = 32805

2years before = 40500*100*100 / (90*90) = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Divya sweta   8 years AGO

10%of 40500 in 1st yr gives 4050...so remaining is 36450.. repeating same procedure we get 32805 at the end of 2yrs.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

T.Sandhya Ravali   8 years AGO

At the end of first year :40500-(40500×(10÷100))=36450
2nd year :36450-(36450×(10÷100))= 32805
We r up to option 6 now
Then check in reverse

If initial is 50000
After 1 year:50000-(50000*(10/100))=45000
Then after 2 year:45000-(45000*(10÷100))=40500.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Shreyas Das   8 years AGO

Using the formula for compound interest,we can find the value of the machine after two years.The ans is 32805.
There is only one 32805 in the list,so it should be the answer.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Pushpendra Jindal   8 years AGO

40500-40500*((1+(10/100))^2)=32805

x-x*((1+(10/100))^2)=40500
x=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

After 2 years, 40500-[40500*(10/100)]=36450
36450-[36450*(10/100)]=32805
2 years ago,
let p=50000, CI=9500
=50000-9500=40500
option 6) 32805, 50000 is the correct answer

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Rohit   8 years AGO

see we can do it very easy way.present value is 40500.after 1 year the value will be 10%less because its depreciates

[40500-(40500*10%)]
=[40500-(40500*10/100)]
=40500-4050
=36450

next year it will be

[36450-(36450*10%)]
36450-3645
=32805

Now if we the option we see that only option 6 has the value 32805 so we can crosscheck the second value 50000.
if 2 years ago its value was 50000.then after 1st year that should be
[50000-(50000*10%)]=45000
next year [45000-(45000-10%)]=40500.so we can get the present value by this.
So,problem solved.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Divya   8 years AGO

the formula used is P(1-r/100)^n

40500(1-10/100)^2

=40500(9/10)2
=405*81
=32805

Like? Yes (1) | No   

DUPPALA NARESH   8 years AGO

after 1st yr=Dep:(10*40500)/100=4050
cost=40500-4050=36450
2nd year=Dep:(10*36450)/100=3645
cost=36450-3645=32805.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

imran   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 is 4050 and sub with original val = 36450
10%of 36450 is 3645 and sub with original val = 32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Rajesh   8 years AGO

As a machine depriciates , to calculate n years after...
40500(1-10/100)^2 = 32805
to calculate n years ago
40500/(1-10/100)^2 = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

rohit kumar jain   8 years AGO

depriciation first year= 40500-10% of 40500= 36450
second year depreciation= 36450- 10% of 36450= 32805

and two year ago the value of machine was 50000 with option.

Like? Yes (3) | No (3)  

kondapuram tirumalreddy   8 years AGO

value of machine after 2 years=P[1-{R/100}]^2
==> 40500[1-{10/100}]^2=Rs.32805.

value of machine 2 years ago is given by P/[1-{R/100}]^2
==>40500/[1-{10/100}]^2=Rs.50000.

Like? Yes (3) | No (3)  

Saumya Shankar   8 years AGO

value after 2 year =40500(1- (10÷100))^2 =32805
value 2 year ago = 40500 ÷ (1 - (10÷100))^2 = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Maholleshwari Nekkanti   8 years AGO

After two years population =90/100*90/100*40500=32805
let Two years ago population be x then,
90*x/100*90/100=40500
x=50000

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

megha agarwal   8 years AGO

present value = 40500
depreciation rate=10% per annum
A=P(1+R/100)^T
R=rate (for depreciation rate=-R)
worth after 2 years= 40500(1-10/100)^2=32805
worth 2 years before=40500/(1-10/100)^2=50000

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

veeranjaneyulu   8 years AGO

40500->100% THEN 90%=36450(AFTR 1 YEAR)
36450->100% THEN 90%=32805(AFTER 2 YEARS)

40500->90% THEN 100%=45000(1 YEAR BEFORE)
45000->90% THEN 100%=50000(BEFORE 2 YEARS)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Siddharth   8 years AGO

Value after 2 years = 40500*(1 - 10/100)^2
Value before 2 years = 40500/(1 - 10/100)^2

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

ABHISHEK KUMAR   8 years AGO

Depreciation formula= P(1-r/100)^n
putting the values we get ₹32805 as it's value after two years.

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

MUKUL BAGRE   8 years AGO

Successive depreciations of 10% and 10% equals 19%. so after 2 years value reduces to 81% of 40500 which is 32805.
Also, 81% of previous value equals 40500, so previous value equals 50000 (40500/0.81).

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Sadanand agarwal   8 years AGO

2years after resultant â„… decrease is (-10-10+{(-10*-10)/100)=-19
So 19â„… of 40500 is=7695
So 40500-7695=32805

Only 6th option suit it so ans is option 6

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Karthik devarakonda   8 years AGO

the machine value after two years must be less than 40500.so all options except 5,6 eliminate. machine value before two years must be less than or equal to 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Juhi Agarwal   8 years AGO

Final value is Rs.40500
depreciates at rate 10% , 2 years ago by using formula
f=I(1-r%/100)^t ,40500/0.81=50000
After two years = f=I(1-r%/100)^t,f=40500*.81=32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Padmatejaswi   8 years AGO

1st year 10%of40500=4050
So after 1year amount=40500-4050=36450
Next year=36450-(36450%10)=32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

MAYANK   8 years AGO

let 1 year ago,your amount was x,,then reducing 10%from it,,it become 9x/10=40500,so x=45000,,same process again, 1 yr before from now,its value is y,so reducing 10%,9y/10=45000,,so y=50000,,so in only sixth option it has 50000 value ,,so ans is option 6.

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Samruddha   8 years AGO

10% of 40500=4050 ,so for 1st year value of machine=40500-4050=36450,now for 2nd year 10%of 36450=3645,so 36450-3645=32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

value of machine after 2year=40500(90/100)^2
=32805
value of machine before 2year=40500(100/90)^2
50000
option 6
########!!!!!!!!!!!!#########

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

aishwarya pandey   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 is 4050 so for next year it becomes 40500-4050=36450
for next second year 10% of 3650 is 3645 so it becomes 36450-3645= 32805 (for next 2 years)
similarly for 2 years ago we add the 10% with the total ruppees like considering 50000 its 10% is 5000 so for next year 50000-5000=45000 and for another next it should be 45000-4500=40500 which given presently so ans 6 is correct option..

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

Mridula Shaw   8 years AGO

By depreciating 10% annually on Rs.40500 for 2 yrs=Rs.32805
By increment 10% annually on Rs.40500 for 2 yrs=Rs.50000

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

phanikumar   8 years AGO

10 % of 40500 is 4050 and after subtracted that 36450 then again the 10% in that is 3645 again we subtracted get answer 32805 . 2nd one 2 ago means they given 90% valu 40500 then 100% is 45000 then again we find 2 years back it means 90% is 45000 then the 100% of 45000 is 50000 then the option is 6

Like? Yes (2) | No (4)  

Monika   8 years AGO

The principal amount is 40500. So,calculate the interest with P = 40500 r= 10 % and n = 1 and subtract that with principal. Now again with the new principal is 36450 calculate the interest again and subtract the interest again . Now the principal will be 32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (4)