IBM
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Numerical Ability
Profit and Loss
Q. A salesman marks an item 60% above the cost price & offers 2 successive discounts of 25% & 15% on the marked price. His profit is?
Read Solution (Total 12)
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- let cost price is 100
mark price= 160
after 25% of discount the cost is 160*.75=120
after 15% of discount the cost is 120*0.85=102
so the profit is 2 rupees
or 2% - 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(96) No(1)
- if cp=x =>marked price=1.6x
cost after 25% discount=1.6x*.75=1.2x
cost after another 15% dicount=1.2x*.85=1.02x
hence profit=2% - 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(10) No(2)
- Let C.P be C and Marked price be M
M=1.6*C
Hence,S(S.P)= 0.75*0.85*1.6*C
Profit %= (S-C)/C*100
%=(0.75*0.85*1.6*C-C)/C*100 = 2% - 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(6) No(0)
- let us consider price of an item is 100..if he marks cost as 60% above cost price then it will be 160.by giving 25% on 160 he gets 120.by successive discount he should give 15% on 120 so he will get 15% of 120 will be 18.therefore finally he gets 102.profit will be 2
- 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(4) No(0)
- let he purcase for 100
now 60% marked price then 100+60=160 is marked price
first discount:25% ---->25% of 160=40 so 160-40=120 will be the first discount price
Second discount:15% --->15% of 120=18 so 120-18=102 will be the marked price
so he buy for 100 and sell for 102 he got 2 rupees profit so 2%. - 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(3) No(0)
- let CP be 100
marked price=100+60=160
SP=120(1-25/100)(1-15/100)
=76.5
profit=100-76.5=23.5
- 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(2) No(25)
- Consider the initial cost has 100, now the price is increased by 60% so it becomes 160. Now first discount is 25% i.e, multiply 160 by 0.75 it results 120 and now the second discount is 15% i.e, multiply by 0.85 it results in 102. Now subtract 102 from 100 and you get the profit as 2%
- 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(1) No(1)
- let x be the cost price.
then marked price =x(1+(60/100))
=8x/5
s.p=8x/5(1-(25/100))(1-(15/100))
=51x/50
profit=s.p-c.p
51x/50-x
x/50(ans)
so the answer will depend on what value of x is given in ques, else answer will be x/50 only. - 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(1) No(3)
- when 2 succesive discount given
single discount D=m+n-(mn/100)=25+15-(25*15/100)=36.25
let cp=x
mp=160x/100=8x/5
sp=mp(1-(D/100)=1.02x
p=sp-cp=.02x
if x=100
p=2 - 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(1) No(0)
- let cost price is 100
mark price= 160
after 25% of discount the cost is 160*.75=120
after 15% of discount the cost is 120*0.85=102
so the profit is 2 rupees
or 2%
- 9 years agoHelpfull: Yes(1) No(0)
- let Original price is x
Marked price(MP)is x+x*60/100 = 160x/100
25% disc on MP
Now cost is mp-mp*25%
i.e cost is 160x/100 -[(160x/100 * 25/100)=40x/100 ] = 120x/100
15% disc on mp
Now cost is 120x/100-mp*15%
i.e 120x/100 - 24x/100 = 96x/100
So he get loss 4% - 11 years agoHelpfull: Yes(0) No(3)
- 20% above cost price
- 10 years agoHelpfull: Yes(0) No(0)
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