Latest Others Aptitude Question SOLUTION: If the cost of pins reduces by rs 4 per dozen,12 more pins can be purchased for rs 48.The cost of pins per dozen after reduction is?

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If the cost of pins reduces by rs 4 per dozen,12 more pins can be purchased for rs 48.The cost of pins per dozen after reduction is?

Asked In Others jaya mishra (11 years ago)

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Garima  (11 years ago)

3 dozen @ Rs 16 per dozen means 3*16= 48
4 dozen @ Rs 12 per dozen means 4*12=48

So after reduction, Cp per dozen is Rs 12 per dozen.

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mohd zubair khan  (11 years ago)

let cost price per pin = x rs
prince of a dozen pin = 12x rs
and pins purchased initially= y
so we can x*y=48------(1)
y=48/x----(2)
now according to question
new price = 12x-4 (reduce 4 rs per dozen)
now price per pin-= (12x-4)/12 rs
at this price we can buy 12 more pins
means pins purchased= y+12
so {(12x-4)/12}*(y+12)=48---------(2)
12xy/12 - 4y/12 + 144x/12 - 4 =48
12xy - 4y + 144x - 48 = 48*12
put value of xy from equation 1 and value of y from 2
we get
12*48 - 4(48/x) + 144x - 48*12 = 48*12
on solving above equation we get
x=1.33
so price of 1 dozen = 12*1.33 = 15.96
reduce 4 rs from 1 dozen= 11.96
price per dozen after reduction = 11.96 rs
=12 (approximately)

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vidur  (8 years ago)

let cost per dozen be =x
No. of pins purchased in Rs 48 =48*12/x -------------------(equation 1)
New cost per dozen is= x-4
No. of pins purchased will be=48*12/x-4 --------( equation 2)
Now,
equation 2 - equation 1 ,
48*12/x-4 - 48/x = 12
Solv it we get
(x)square -4x-192=0
(x)square -16x+12x-192=0
x(x-16)+12(x-16)=0
x=16,x=-12
so x=16
new price is x-4, so 16-4= 12

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