Neel Patel   10 years AGO

In cade 1. 20%+ 30% discount =20+30-(20*30)/100
=44%discount
if marked price is 100x then selling price is 56x


In case 2. 30%+40%=30+40-30*40/100
=58% discount
if marked prire is 100x then selling price is 42x ,
on which the shopkeeper gains 5%
do costprise is=42x*(100/105)=40x

so in 1st case selling price =56xand cost price= 40x
profit precentage=(56-40/40)*100
=40%

Like? Yes (14) | No (4)  

Rahul Sah   10 years AGO

Let M.P=Rs.100
After discount of 20%+30%(100-->80-->56) S.P=Rs.56
After discount of 30%+40%(100-->70-->42) S.P=Rs.42

When discount of 30%+40%,profit=5%,S.P=Rs.42
=>S.P=105% of C.P
=>42=(105/100)*C.P
=>C.P=(42*100)/105

Original discount of 20%+30%,profit=?,S.P=Rs.56
=>S.P=(100+%profit)% of C.P
=>56=((100+%profit)/100) * (42*100)/105
=>%profit=40

Option 7)

Like? Yes (5) | No (1)  

Nischay Jain   10 years AGO

Let Or. cost=100
Later discount = 30% +40%
so S.P = 42
he gains a profit of 5% on selling at Rs 42
(105*x)/100=42
Therefore, the C.p is Rs 40
now if sold the watch at 20% + 30%
Then S.P = 56
now profit % = profit/c.p *100
16/40 *100= 40%
Therefore the ans is (7) 40%

Like? Yes (3) | No   

SUNITEE GARIMA   10 years AGO

Let Marked price be Rs100
On giving successive discount of 20% and 30% on MP,total discount is 44%.
so SP=(100-44)*100/100=Rs 56
In second case ,on giving successive disount of 30% and 40%,total discount offered is 58%.
So ,new SP=(100-58)*100/100=Rs 42.
A/q,profit earned is 5%.
So CP=(100/105)*42=Rs 40
So actual profit =56-40=Rs16
profit %=(16/40)*100=40%

Like? Yes (3) | No (1)  

Sourojit Dhua   10 years AGO

Let marked price be 100.
Sp of the item for 1st condition comes out as rs. 56.
Sp of the item for 2nd cnditn= rs.42
now, cp= x+x/20=42
so, cp=rs.40
now desired profit= (56-40)/40x100=40%

Like? Yes (2) | No   

swarup kumar prusti   10 years AGO

100-20% dis=80
80-30%dis=56
100-30% dis=70
70-40% dis=42
in 42 he have 5% profit
in 56 he will get 40% profit

Like? Yes (2) | No   

suraj Khanduri   10 years AGO

let printed price 100.
let actual price x.
after 20%+30% discount price= 56.
after 30%+40% discount price= 42
on selling 42 he gain 5%.
x+(x.5/100)=42
x=40. i.e. actual price.
according previous structure he would gain 56-40=16.
in term of %: (16/40)*100= 40
so ans=40%.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Dr.Dipin Singh   10 years AGO

If C is the cost & P is printed price, then
sp in new structure = 0.7*0.6*P = 1.05C
SP in eralier structure = 0.8*0.7*P= 0.56P= C*0.56*1.05/0.42= 1.40C
Hence profit % in earlier structure = 40%

Like? Yes (3) | No (2)  

vikash kumar   10 years AGO

let the market price is 100 ,he want to give the discount of 20% first and then 30% means the desired sp will be 56rs but his actual sp will be 42rs after giving the discount of 30% and 40% and he has gained 5% from his actual cp and after calculating his actual cp was 40rs means his desired profit is (56-40)*100/40%=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

ADARSH GAURAV   10 years AGO

say MP =100
after giving disc. of 30% and 40% respectively, SP becomes 70 and 42 respectively
so when SP=42 and gain=5%
so ((SP-CP)/CP)*100=gain%
CP=40
again consider MP=100
after giving disc. of 20% and 30% respectively, SP becomes 80 and 56 respectively
gain%=((56-40)/40)*100=40%




40% is the answer.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

ANAND KUMAR   10 years AGO

let s.p=100
100-30%+40% of 100=42
so c.p=42*100/105
=40
now,100-20%+30% of 100=56
hence profit=16*100/40
=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

kumar aryan   10 years AGO

Let x be marked price after 30-40%it become23x/50 which is equal to selling price .now cost price is equal to 100*sp/100+%profit which comes 2x/5. Now after 20-30% selling price will come 14x/25 now profit is14x/25-2x/5=4x/25 %profit is4x/25*100/2x/5=40%.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

deepak kumar   10 years AGO

ON 42 GAIN WAS 5%, THEN ON 56 GAIN WILL BE 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

SAYAN CHATTERJEE   10 years AGO

let the printed price be x & cost price be c
so x*70/100*60/100-c=c*5/100
=> x=5*c/2
at desired price, profit= ( x*80/100*70/100-c)/c*100%
=40%. (7)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Kapil Shirsath   10 years AGO

Let the marked price be 100Rs
When discount is 30%+40%,net discount=58%. So the selling price is 42Rs and profit earned is 5%
So, the cost price is 40Rs
Now when discount is 20%+30%,net discount=44%. So the selling price is 56Rs
Profit intended to be earned is 56-40=16rs
So the profit percentage=(100*16)/40=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Rajat sadhu   10 years AGO

let the printed price=x then
selling price due to misprinting=0.56x (due to 30%+40%discount)
he gains 5% at this s.p. so the actual price is=95%of s.p.
=0.399x
earlier selling price=30% of (20% of x)=.56x
profit on actual price=(0.56x-0.399x)*100/(0.399x)=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

lalit   10 years AGO

consider initially MP=100
intial plan sp of shopkeeper=((100*20/100)*30)/100=56
but actual sp of shopkeeper=((100*30/100)*40)/100=42
acc to question 1.05cp=42
cp=40
profit=56-40=16=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Pranoy Bej   10 years AGO

20%+30% = 44%
30%+40% = 58%
let printed price = 100
so SP= 42
then CP = 40
so the profit for earlier structure will be = (16/40)*100 = 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

manish kumar singh   10 years AGO

Let M.P = 100 Rs.
On giving Successive discount of 20% and 30% the S.P will be 56 Rs.

Also, giving Successive discounts of 30% and 40% the new S.P will be 42 Rs.
as given he gets 5% profit
so ((42-x)/x)*100=5
from here we get c.p=40
which is denoted as x
so ((56-40)/40)*100)
from here we get 40% as answer

Like? Yes (1) | No   

ANKIT SHARMA   10 years AGO

let cost be 100
5% profit
then 105
105/.6=175
175/.7=250
then
250-(250*.2)=200
200-(200*.3)=140
HENCE 40% ans

Like? Yes (1) | No   

venkat suhas   10 years AGO

In the new discount, the cost of the watch is 42% of the marked price.
It gives him 5% profit.
So,the original price is 40% of marked price.
By the initial discount, it is the 56% of the marked price
His profit is 16% on 40% which is equal to 40%.
So, the answer is 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sujeet kumar   10 years AGO

let printed price=x.
selling price at (30%+40%)=x(100-58)/100=42x/100.
cost price at 5% profit= 42x/105.
selling price at(20%+30%)=56x/100.
profit=(56x/100-42x/105)=(0.56-0.4)x=0.16x.
%profit=(0.16x*100)/(42x/105)=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

shree   10 years AGO

40% is

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Jeevanantham.V.M   10 years AGO

Let M.P = 100 Rs.
On giving Successive discount of 20% and 30% the S.P will be 56 Rs.

Also, giving Successive discounts of 30% and 40% the new S.P will be 42 Rs.

According to the Question ,he gets only 4% profit
Therefore C.P will be 40 Rs.

So, the actual Profit = (56-40)*100 / 40 = 16*100/40 = 40 %

Like? Yes (1) | No   

pawan kumar chhipa   10 years AGO

let s.p is 100 then
30%+40% is 42
and it gain 5% on it
so c.p is 42*100/105 =40

and 20%+30% is 56

so its gain is 56-40/40*100
40%
ans is 7) 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Akash Kumar   10 years AGO

Let assume the printed pricr =100 rs. after 30% and 40% off consiqutively then the sold price will be 70*60/100=42(as per new structure). on it 5% profit means actual price was=(100/105)*42=40. for the earlier structure sold price is=80*70/100=56. So he decided to get actual profit=((56-40)/40)*100%=40%. hence option 7 is correct.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Nitin Srivastava   10 years AGO

ans 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sayan pal   10 years AGO

actual cost = y
printed price = x
case 1 (20%+30%) discount
price after discount= (0.8*x)*.7=0.56*x
case 2 (30%+40%) discount
price after discount=(0.7*x)*0.6=0.42*x
gain in case 2 is =.05 *y
hence, (0.42*x-y)=0.05*y
x=2.5*y
gain in case 1 is
=(0.56*x-y)*100/y %
=(0.56*2.5*y - y)*100/y
= 40%. (ans)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Arpit Singh   10 years AGO

1.30+20-(30*20/100)=44%
2.30+40-(30*40/100)=58%
Printed price=100
Case 2 SP=100-58=42
As profit is 5% so CP=40
Actual SP=100-44=56
Profit that he plannes=(56-40)/40*100=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Devendra Marghade   10 years AGO

If Actual cost=x & printed price=y, then with later condition,
y*(70/100)*(60/100)=(105/100)*x
y=2.5x
It shows, Printed price is 2.5 times the cost price
So at gradual discount of 20% & 30%
y*(80/100)*(70/100)=0.56y
=0.56*2.5x=1.4x
Which is 40% above the cost price

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Rahul rahul   10 years AGO

Let mrp =100
30+40 percent= sp=42
Then by cp=100/100+profit ×sp
cp=40
Now sp in earlier structure
20+30 percent=56
gain=56-40/40 ×100= 40 perc.

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Ravi Bhalani   10 years AGO

suppose CP=100
First case: 44% discount
Second case:58% discount
He gets 5% of actual cost so, SP=105
By selling 30% +40% discount he gets only 5% profit.So
Marked price=10500/42=250
Now in 1st case discount was 20% + 30% =44%
Discount=250*0.44=110
So,S,P=140
=> %profit =40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

naina   10 years AGO

profit to be added = 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

HARDIP BHALANI   10 years AGO

suppose CP=100
First case: 44% discount
Second case:58% discount
He gets 5% of actual cost so, SP=105
By selling 30% +40% discount he gets only 5% profit.So
Marked price=10500/42=250
Now in 1st case discount was 20% + 30% =44%
Discount=250*0.44=110
So,S,P=140
=> %profit =40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Harshad    10 years AGO

suppose CP=100
First case: 44% discount
Second case:58% discount
He gets 5% of actual cost so, SP=105
By selling 30% +40% discount he gets only 5% profit.So
Marked price=10500/42=250
Now in 1st case discount was 20% + 30% =44%
Discount=250*0.44=110
So,S,P=140
=> %profit =40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

suman kumar   10 years AGO

let marked price be x.
and let c.p be 100.
so x*0.7*0.6=0.42x=105(5%gain).
since, x=250,
so,x*0.8*0.7=0.56x=140
since 40%gain

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

DIPAK TIWARI   10 years AGO

Let printed price be ₹100
From the 1st condition S.P=₹56
From the 2nd condition S.P=₹42
Let cost price be ₹ X
Therefore 105X/100=42
=>X=₹40
% Profit in earlier =(16/40)*100=40%
Option 7

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

Aakash Jain   10 years AGO

assume that printed price of watch=100
then 20%+30% discount=44 so selling price=56
and 30%+40% discount=58 so selling price=42
5%profit when it sold at price 42 so cost price=40
when it sold in Rs.56 ,profit % will be 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

sanjeev kumar   10 years AGO

ans=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

vartika    10 years AGO

Let market price be rs 100.
then after 2 successive discounts of 20 and30 %
the SP will be rs 56
bt with d successive discounts of 30 and 40%
new SP will be rs 42.
according to question.. his gain is 5% on new discounts,
so CP = (100/105)*42 = rs 40
gain with his previous discounts ={( 56-40)/56}*100 = 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Tark Patel   10 years AGO

Let market price is 100 Rs.

In Second case discount 30% + 40% so effective discount is 58% so selling price will be 42 Rs. and he gain 5% profit so cost price will be 40 Rs.

In first case discount 20% + 30% so effective discount is 44% so selling price will be 56 Rs. and cost price is same as above calculated which is 40 Rs.
Hence profit gain by him in first case is 40% (SP = 56 Rs and CP = 40 Rs)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

posirajesh   10 years AGO

cost price= 40rs since 5%profit when he sell for second discount..
hence for 20%+30% discount gain=16rs which is 40%of actual cost

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

ashok   10 years AGO

ans==40%

assume the cost price is c

and printed price is 1

now calculate discounted cost-
#30+40@
1-->(30% discount)-->0.7-->(additional 40% discount)-->0.42

ie. give 5 % gain
so 1.05*c=0.42
c=0.42/1.05

#20+30@
1-->(20% discount)-->0.8-->(additional 30% discount)-->0.56

assume selling cost amount earlier is x*c

x*c=0.56
x*0.42/1.05=0.56
x=.56*1.05/.42
x=1.40

so profit=(1.40c-c)/c*100=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Vanika   10 years AGO

Gain= ( (0.7 * 0.8 SP) - CP ) / CP * 100 =5 (GIVEN )
=14 SP= 35 CP
SO FOR DISCOUNT 20% +30%
Gain = ( (0.8 * 0.7 SP -CP)/CP * 100
Solving this
Gain= 40 %

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

ANIL KUMAR   10 years AGO

cost price is 40,a/t previous discount selling price will be 56,so

(16/40*100)=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Rajat Goyal   10 years AGO

Using simple C.P and S.P. formulas

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Chiranjit Agarwal   10 years AGO

let the printed price=100
@ 20+30 % discount: S.P= 56
@ 30+40 % discount: S.P=42 (here gain= 5%)
so actual cost= 40
if S,P=56
gain= 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

hiren vavadiya   10 years AGO

here 5% for 100% then 120% it is 40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

shivam tiwari   10 years AGO

Let M.P = 100 Rs.
On giving Successive discount of 20% and 30% the S.P will be 56 Rs.

Also, giving Successive discounts of 30% and 40% the new S.P will be 42 Rs.

According to the Question ,he gets only 4% profit
Therefore C.P will be 40 Rs.

So, the actual Profit = (56-40)*100 / 40 = 16*100/40 = 40 %

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

RAVI RANJAN   10 years AGO

30%+40%=58% discount
20%+30%=44%discount
42% price gives 5% profit
then 56% price will give 40% discount

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

MRITUNJAY KUMAR   10 years AGO

option 7)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Gaurav shah   10 years AGO

sp=100rs let
hence mp will be 42 rs and cp will be 40 rs
now for dis of 20% and 30% the sp=56 rs and cp=40rs. so profit=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Sukanya   10 years AGO

30 % + 40%

30%= 30
40% of 70=28
So 42 .
If 42=(100+5)% then 40 is the Cost Price.


20% + 30 %

100-20=80
30% 0f 80=24
80-24=56

56 =140%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

mnsai   10 years AGO

initially ASSUME printed price 100
after giving 20% 80 it becomes then 30% on it is 56 is selling price
but due to to banner mistake after giving 30 it becomes 70 after 40% on it becomes 42
so actual cost is 42-2.1 =39.9 rupees as 5% profit on actual cost
but he sells at 56 means 39.9 he decide to earn 40 % profit

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Md.Sultan Khichi   10 years AGO

Let the printed price is 100.
He wants to give discount of 20%+30%..
So there fore sp=56..
But printed discount is 30%+40%
So the actual dp=42..
Now let the actual cl is x..
So he get 5% profit..
5%*x+x=42
X=40..
Now if he give the discount of 20%+30% then his profit % =(56-40)/40*100=40%
Ans..40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Deb    10 years AGO

If the printed price is x
Then selling price would be (70*x/100)*(80/100).
But due to misprint,It is now (60*x/100)*(70/100)=42*x/100.
As he gained 5% of actual cost...
so ,the actual cost is (42*x/100)*(100/105)=2*x/5.
If if he sells it in the old format(20%+30%)
he will gain (56*x/100)-(2x/5)=16*x/100
now the gain is (16*x/100)/(2*x/5)*100 %=40%

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

deepesh singh panwar   10 years AGO

p=16/40*100

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Yogesh   10 years AGO

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Shashi nath jha   10 years AGO

Ans= 40

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

Kumar Vishal   10 years AGO

Let us assume a total of Rs 100.Then 30%+40% corresponds to Rs 42,and if makes a gain of 5% then c.p=40.Now 20%+30% means 56,i.e a gain of rs 16 which is 40% of c.p Rs40.

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)