Dear VIGNESH
You gave an additional excellent idea for solving the puzzle dated 2nd april so marks will be awarded to you by considering yours answer correct
Marks will be provided to all users who opted 26 as the answer of puzzle.
Dear SUMAN
Thank you for accepting the condition given by us.
Your last doubt is based on the weightage condition given in the question but one thing is also given in the question that you have to consider the sum of weightage after converting these in the minium integral ratio.
the condition in the question given is
Profit = effective investment ratio (minimum integral ratio) + effective work hour ratio (minimum integral ratio),
so after taking 60 % weightage you should first convert these ratios in simple minimum integral ratio, then you should take the same step for time
finally by adding these numbers we will get the final ratio
thanks
Dear SUMAN
as you are saying, please explain the same for investment of 0, 1, 4, 5 lacs and time same for all. Here the first person invests nothing but he is very talented so he is accepted as a partner.
Would you give 0 % profit to the first because he invested nothing.
@ SUMAN
in the case generated by you
if their work efficiency is 3 hours per day every person
then minimum work ratio = 1:1:1:1
so profit will be distributed in the ratio
1+1:5+1:9+1:13+1 or 2:6:10:14 or 1:3:5:7
so last person who invested most (13 times) will get 7 times relative to the first who invested least.
and why this distribution is incorrect, is time not important in any business,
Dear AMAR
The answer of the following question would be same even for 70 % and 30 % distribution because it is clearly given in the question that you have to take the integer ratio.
Dear SANDEEP
speed and velocity for linear motion of a wheel are same, and for your information angular speed is also a meaningful word.
And a number of users understood the meaning clearly and provided their correct subjective answers also.
Besides it the words used are also as used in standard manner.
Dear SANDEEP
unit of velocity is m/sec always
its angular velocity for which unit will be radian per sec
A third term angular frequency is also here for which unit will be revolution per sec.
Dear JEEVAN
according to your opinion expression should be
if x = 4/(1+(4/(1+(4/(1+(4/(1+(4 ........))))00000......upto infinite
but in this expression opening brackets are 8 but closing brackets are not 8, so first you should write this expression correctly
second if we write 4/1+x then its meaning will be 4 in numerator and 1+x in denominator always
because if anyone will write 4/1 + x then he will write either with some gap (blank space between 4/1 and x) or 4+x directly because it is useless to write 4/1 instead of 4.
3rd of all it is a well defined infinite expression so there is nothing which makes confusion
Dear DIPIN if opinion of JEEVAN is correct then solve the question as written by us