M4maths Previous Puzzles

21 Sep 2016 Interest

Find compound interest on Rs.16000 at 20% per annum for 9 months, compounded quarterly.

OPtion

1) 2322
2) 1832
3) 2682
4) 2672
5) 1261
6) 1264
7) 1424
8) 2432
9) 2522
10)None of these

Solution

Principle = Rs.16000, Time = 9 months = 3 quarters
Rate = 20% per annum = 5% per quarter
=> Amount = Rs. [16000*(1+5/100)^3)]
= Rs.16000 * 21/20 * 21/20 * 21/20 = Rs. 18522
CI = Rs. (18522 - 16000) = 2522
Optioin 9)

Correct Option: 9 Best Solution (60)

NAVNEET KUMAR SABRE   8 years AGO

GIVEN P=16000, R=20%, N=9MONTHS=3/4YEARS AND COMPOUNDED QUATERLY.

FOR COMPOUNDED QUATERLY
AMOUNT = P[1+(R/4)/100]^4N
=16000[1+(20/4)/100]^{4 X (3/4) }
=16 X (21/20)^3
=18522
COMPOUND INTEREST (C.I.) IS

C.I.=AMOUNT - PRINCIPAL
=18522-16000
=Rs 2522............answer :)

Like? Yes (36) | No (8)  

Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

Simply putting the formula n getting the result.
p=16000,r=20? but when compounded quarterly then rate will become 1/4th of the yearly ie 5? and time period will become 4 times of the original time period ie t=9×4 months=36 months=3 years.then CI=?
CI=p{[1+(r/100)]^n-1}
=16000{[1+(5/100)]^3-1}
=2522 Ans
Hence option (9) is the right answer.

Like? Yes (20) | No (4)  

Ankit Sharma   8 years AGO

20% per annum, so for quaterly its gonna be
20/4=5%
so total amount= 16000(1+5/100)^3
= 18522
hence CI=18522-16000
= 2522
so answer is option (9) 2522

Like? Yes (23) | No (8)  

karthi   8 years AGO

Given:P=Rs.16000,n=9months=3/4yrs,R=20%pa
Amount=P(1+R/4*100)^4n
=16000(1+20/400)^3/4*4
=16000(1+5/100)^3
=16000*21/20*21/20*21/20
=Rs.18522
Compound Interest =>18522-16000
=>Rs.2522

option 9)

Like? Yes (11) | No (4)  

pugazh gandhi   8 years AGO

formula for compound interest is
SUM=PRINCIPAL*[1+(r/n)]^nt
n=compounded period
t=no. of years
r=rate of intrest/100
16000[1+(0.2/4)]^0.75*4 = 18522
interest = 18522-16000
=2522
so correct opt is 9)

Like? Yes (8) | No (3)  

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

P=Rs16000, R=20% per anum = 5% per quarter
Time=9months=3quarters
Compound Intrest= P{1+(R/100)}^n - P
= 16000(1+0.5)^3 -16000= 2522

Like? Yes (12) | No (7)  

Devireddy Jashuva   8 years AGO

1st quarter 800
2nd quarter 800+40
3rd quarter 800+82
total=2522

Like? Yes (5) | No   

kondapuram tirumalreddy   8 years AGO

according to question

when interest is compounded Quarterly formula is given as
Amount=P[1+{(R/4)/100}]^4*n
time = 9 months ==> 4 quarters=4*9 =36 months=3 years .

therefore Amount=16000*[1+{20/4*100}]^3=18522
compound interest=18522-16000=Rs.2522.

Like? Yes (11) | No (7)  

Shweta Mishra   8 years AGO

Since 9 months = 3/4 years
So, C.I = (16000*(1+((20/4)/100))^3)-16000 = 2522
Hence, option 9 is correct ans.

Like? Yes (4) | No (1)  

sharumathydeivasigamani   8 years AGO

since it is quarterly, first change the time and rate of its quarter parts.

where as,
time= 9months =9/12 yr
rate=20%

for quarter

time = 9 months which has 3 quarters
so time=3

rate=(20/4) = 5%

now applying in compound interest formula

CI=P(1+r/100)^n
CI=16000*(1+5/100)^3
CI=2522

Like? Yes (3) | No   

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

compound interest=16000{[(1+20/400)^(3*4/4)]-1}
CI=18522-16000
CI=2522
so the correct answer is option 9) 2522

Like? Yes (5) | No (2)  

anupama   8 years AGO

p=16000,t=9 months=3 quaters.
r=20% annum =5% quarter
amt = (16000*(1+5/100)3)
=18522
c.i = 18522-16000 = 2522

Like? Yes (3) | No   

NISHANT   8 years AGO

A=P(1+r/n)^n×t Here P=16000,r=0.2,n=4,t=3/4
CI=A-P

Like? Yes (3) | No (1)  

dokku vasu yadav   8 years AGO

p=16000,R=20%=5% quaterly t=9months=3 quaters
amount=p(1+(r/4/100)power of 3
16000*(1+5/100)power of 3
=16000*21/20*21/20*21/20=18522
C.I=18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes (4) | No (2)  

ayushi mishra   8 years AGO

A=P*(1+(R/100)^N
P=16000
RATE=20%,IT WILL BE 20/4=5%
TIME=9 MONTH=3 QUARTERS
HENCE,
A=16000(1+(5/100)^3
=18522
THEN
C.I=A-P
=18522-16000
=2522

Like? Yes (3) | No (1)  

Gautam Kumar   8 years AGO

(16000 * (1 + 5/100) ^ 3) - 16000 = 2522.
As Quarterly compounded so rate will be (20/4) i.e 5 % and time of 9 months will be 3 periods of 3 months .

Like? Yes (2) | No   

aakash singhal   8 years AGO

r=20/4= 5 n=3
16000(1+5/100)^3=18522
18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes (3) | No (2)  

jothi lakshmi   8 years AGO

Amount=16000*(1+(20/4)/100)^(9*3)/12
=>16000(105/100)^3
=>18522
CI=18522-16000
CI=2522

Like? Yes (1) | No   

DIVYA PRIYA. P   8 years AGO

here r=20/4=5% because interest is calculated quarterly then given n=9 months which has 3 quarter parts a year so n=3 then use it in the compound interest formula

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sujit sinha   8 years AGO

As it is compounded quarterly,
so rate =20/4%=5%
Time=(9/12)*4=3
Amount=16000(1+5/100)^3
=18,522
so C.I.=18,522-16,000
=2522

Like? Yes (1) | No   

ramyaraj   8 years AGO

p[1+(r/4)/100]^4n
16000[1+(20/4)/100]^3
=18522
ci=18522-16000
=2522

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

shivani shukla   8 years AGO

To find compound interest firstly we have to find amount i.e. 'A' then Compound Interest i.e. C.I
as we have to find C.I quarterly so we will put all the values in the formula i.e. A=P(1+(R/4)/100)^4n
where p=16000
time=9 month=3 quaters
rate=R=20%,it will be 20/4=5%
hence,
A=16000(1+5/100)^3
=18522
then C.I=A-P
=18522-16000
=2522

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

sai prathyusha   8 years AGO

principal=16000/-
time=9months=3quarters
rate=20%per annum=5% per quarter
amount=16000*(1+(5/100))^3=16000*(21/20)^3=18522
C.I=18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

rohith sundaresan   8 years AGO

For First 3 month 5% = 800
Second 3 months 5%= 800+ 5% 800
Third 3 months 5%= 840+ 5% 840
Total = 800+(800+40)+(840+42)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Dipanjan Mukherjee   8 years AGO

9 months= 3 quaters,so
rate =20%=r/4= 5% per quater
Ci=16000(1+5/100)^3-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No   

vaishali agrawal   8 years AGO

CI=16000*(1+(20/400))^4*(9/12)
CI=18522
therefore compound interst=18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No   

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

Amount(A)=P*(1+R/4/100)^4*n=18522
CI=18522-16000=2522
Option 9)

Like? Yes | No   

Ankur Keshari   8 years AGO

4 quarter in one year so 5% quarterly and intrest for 3 more quarter.now simple compound intrest rate 5% time 3 quarter and amount 16000.

Like? Yes | No   

shaik jasmin   8 years AGO

here principal p =16000;
time t =9 months=9/12 years;
rate r=20%;
amount=p[1+((r/4)/100)]^4t
=16000[1+((20/4)/100)]^[4*(9/12)]
=18522
ci=amount-principal
=18522-16000
=2522

Like? Yes | No   

Anant Mishra   8 years AGO

P=16000
T=9 month= 3 quarter
R=20%, 20/4=5%
A=P(1+R/100)^T
=18522
INTEREST=18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No   

rakeysh patel   8 years AGO

1) first three month intrest
(16000*20*0.25)/100 =800
after 3 month principal amount is 16800
then intrest after next 3 months = 840
after 6 months principal amount become 17640
after 9 months amount become 18522
so intrest is 18522-16000 = 2522

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

muskan Khandelwal   8 years AGO

As it is quarterly compounded...so rate will be 1/4 n time will be 4 Times of the given one I.e. R=5% and T=3 years.
c.i. = P*(100+R/100)^T

Like? Yes | No (1)  

prakash sharma   8 years AGO

if we calculate C.I quarterly then we use
Interest=P{1+((r/4)/100)}^4n -p where p=capital
r=rate,n=year
so in this question
Interest = 16000[1+(20/5)/100]^(4*9/12)-16000
=>18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Lakshmi Narayanan.k   8 years AGO

Amount=16000(1+20/4*100)^3
=18522.
18522-16000=2522(option 9)

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

vidyullatha sargu   8 years AGO

amount=p[1+(r/4)/100]^4n
9 months=9/12=3/4
16000[1+(20/4)/100]^4(3/4)
finally 16000(105/100)^3
=18522(amount)
therefore compund interest=amount-princlipal
18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Sandip Das   8 years AGO

p=16000
r=20%
t=9 months
=9/12 year
=3/4
CI=16000(1+(20/4)/100)^4*(3/4)
=16000(21/20)^3
=18522
compound interest=18522-16000
=2522 (option 9)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

VIDYALAKSHMI P J   8 years AGO

for compound interest calculated quaternerly
amount A=p(1+((r/4)/100))^4n
where p =principal amount
r=rate per annum
n=no of years
hence we get total amount after 9 months as Rs 18522
to get the compound interest CI =A-P
=18522 -16000
=Rs 2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

A.KARTHIKA   8 years AGO

Quarterly, so R=20/4=5%
there are 3 quarters in 9 months
:- c.i=16000((1+5/100)^3)-1)
=16000* 1261/ 8000
=2522
ans:- 9) 2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

bagyalakshmi   8 years AGO

Compound Interest= Amount*(1+20/100)^3-1
So, C.I=16000*(1+20/100)3-1
C.I=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Gowtham   8 years AGO

sum=16000(1+[0.2/4])^0.75*4
=18522
int=18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

sushant kumar   8 years AGO

CI= p*(1+r/100)^n - p;
16000*(1+5/100)^3 - 16000
here Interest rate is 20% per annum for a quarter it would be 20/4;
since interest is added after each qaurter so n = 9months/12 *4;

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Dhaval Vekariya   8 years AGO

Amont=16000*(1+(20/40/1000^4*9/12
A=18522
componded interest=18522-16000
=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Prakash   8 years AGO

p=16000
time=9month= 3 quarters.
amount=1600*(1+(5/100))^3=18522
c.i=amount-princi=18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

rohit kumar jain   8 years AGO

compound interest = 16000×(21/20)^3= 18522
so CI= 18522-16000- 2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

man mohan singh   8 years AGO

f=16000x(1+(0.2/4))^(4x0.75)=18522
ci= 18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Indrajit Bhandari   8 years AGO

interest 20% per annum means (20/4)=5% quarterly, (per 3 month).
Now, Principal+Interest for 9 month on 16000= 16000(1+5/100)^3 = 2522.
The power 3 comes from 9/3=3, as interest is counting per 3 month

Like? Yes | No (1)  

priyarajendran   8 years AGO

16000*{1+5/100)^3}
16000*{9261/8000}
18522
18522-16000
2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

SHUBHAM GUPTA   8 years AGO

Rate =20% per annum compounded annually i.e after every 3 months
so rate of interest every 3 month will be (20/4)% =5%
after 9 months amount will be
16000 [1 + {5/100}]^3=18522
Interest will be 18522-16000=2522 Rs
Hence answer will be option 9). 2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

GOPIGA S KUMAR   8 years AGO

p = 16000
r = 20

9 months = 3 quarters
n = 3/4

amount= p(1+r/400)^(4*n)
amount = 16000*(1 + 20/400)^3 = 18522

c.i = amount - principal = 18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Ankit Kumar Maurya   8 years AGO

compounded quarterly so rate becomes 20/4=5%
and time become 9/3=3

we will put this in the compound interest formula and get answer 2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

gulshan   8 years AGO

A=16000*{1+(20/4*100)}^9*4/12
A=16000*{1+1/20}^3
A=16000*(21/20)^3
A=18522
CI=A - P
CI=18522-16000
= 2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

harshit agarwal   8 years AGO

p=16000
t=9 months=3 quarters
r=20% per annum=5% per quarter
a=16000*(1+(5/100))^3
a=18522 interest=18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Karan Saxena   8 years AGO

CI=Amount -Principle

CI=16000(1+20/400)^(3/4)*4 - 16000
so answer will be 2522

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

ANUSHKA BAJPAI   8 years AGO

Compound Interest quarterly = P(1+((R/4)/100))^4n
where,
P is principal
R is rate of Interest
N is time (in years )

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

Manisha gouri   8 years AGO

given principal=16000 r=20% n=9months per annum for quaterly
now we should calculate first Amount
Amount = p(1+(r/4)/100)^4n
= 16000(1+(20/4)/100)^4*(9/12
Amount = 18522
now we need to calculate compound interest,formula is
compound interest =amount-principal
=18522-16000
C.I =2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Samruddha   8 years AGO

a=p[1+(r/n)]^nt
p=16000;r=20%=0.2;n=4;t=9/12 years
a=18522 ,now intrest=18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

prem sagar   8 years AGO

GIVEN:-Compounded quartly
p=16000
r=20%
AMOUNT=P(1+(R/4)/100)^4N
A=18522
C.I=18522-16000=2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Mahesh Mahajan   8 years AGO

P = 16000/-
R = 20% per annum = 5% per quarter.
T = 9 months = 9/12 yr
So,compounded quarterly ,4n here n is in year.Hence ,
T = (9/12)*4 = 3 .
Now,
A = P(1 + (R/4)/100) ^4n
A = 16000 (1 + 5/100) ^3
= 18522
compound Interest = Amount - Principle
=18522 - 16000
=2522/-

Like? Yes | No (1)  

phanikumar   8 years AGO

the compound quarterly formula is p(1+(r/4)/100)^4n

given p=16000 ,r=20% and n=9/12=.75
so finally wet ans 18522
so 18522-16000=2522 so ans is 2522

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Mahima singh   8 years AGO

A= p[ 1 + (r/4)/100]^4n
A= 16000[ 1+ (20/5)/100]^ 4* 3/4
A= 16000[ 1+ (1/20)]^3
A= 16000[ (21/20)]^3
A= 18552

C.I= A-p
C.I= 18552- 16000
C.i = 2552

Like? Yes | No (2)  

20 Sep 2016 Find ?

If
58+72 = 27
36+94 = 45
68+136 = 32
Then
236+84 = ?

OPtion

1) 56
2) 86
3) 78
4) 92
5) 153
6) 38
7) 43
8) 73
9) 47
10)104

Solution

58+72 => (5+8)+(7*2) = 13+14 = 27
36+94 => (3+6)+(9*4) = 9+36 = 45
68+136 => (6+8)+(1*3*6) = 14+18 = 32
Similarly
236+84 = (2+3+6)+(8*4) = 11+32 = 43
Option 7)

Correct Option: 7 Best Solution (22)

Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

very simple,
given that 58+72=27
logic is {(5+8)+(7×2)}=27

similarly, 36+94=45 and 68+136=32
then 236+84=11+32=43 Ans
Hence option (7) is the right answer.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Kshitij   8 years AGO

(5+8)+(7*2)=27
(3+6)+(9*4)=45
(6+8)+(1*3*6)=32
(2+3+6)+(8*4)=43

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

7*2=14+13=27
9*4=36+9=45
6*3=18+14=32
8*4=32+11=43
Option 7)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Aakash Beniwal   8 years AGO

logic...add first number digits + multiply second number digits
i.e.
(5+8) + ( 7*2) = 27
similarly
(2+3+6) + (8*4) = 43 answer

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Amit kumar singh   8 years AGO

58+72=7*2+(8+5)=27
36+94=9*4+(6+3)=45
68+136=6*3*1+(6+8)=32
So
236+84=8*4+(2+3+6)=43

Like? Yes | No   

Anurag   8 years AGO

Add digits of first number
Multiply digits of second number
Add the result

Like? Yes | No   

Lakshmi Narayanan.k   8 years AGO

58+72=27. (5+8=13,7*2=14,13+14=27),
36+94=45. (3+6=9,9*4=36,36+9=45).
68+136=32.(6+8=14,1*3*6=18,18+14=32)
236+84=(2+3+6=11,8*4=32,32+11=43. (opt 7)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

rakeysh patel   8 years AGO

5+8+7*2=27
3+6+9*4=45
6+8+1*3*6=32
then
2+3+6+8*4=43

Like? Yes | No   

aakash singhal   8 years AGO

58 + 72= 27
5+8 + 7×2=27
36 + 94=45
3+6 + 9×4=45
68 + 136=32
6+8 + 1×3×6=32
236 + 84=?
2+3+6 + 8×4=43

Like? Yes | No   

jomon v j   8 years AGO

5+8+7×2=27
3+6+9×4=45
6+8+1×3×6=32
2+3+6+8×4=43

Like? Yes | No   

Siva   8 years AGO

(5+8)+(7×2)=27,
(3+6)+(9×4)=45,
(6+8)+(1×3×6)=32,
(2+3+6)+(8×4)=43.

Like? Yes | No   

Amit Kr Yadav   8 years AGO

5+8 +(7*2) =27

3+6. +(9*4)=45

6+8 + 1*3*6 =32

same as

2+3+6. + (8*4) =43

Like? Yes | No   

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

58+72=[5+8+(7*2)]=27
36+94=[3+6+(9*4)]=45
68+136=[6+8+(1*3*6)=32
Then 236+84=[2+3+6+(8*4)=43.
Hence the right choice is 7.

Like? Yes | No   

man mohan singh   8 years AGO

(5+8)+(7x2)=27
(6+3)+(9x4)=45
(6+8)+(1x3x6)=32
(2+3+6)+(8x4)=43

Like? Yes | No   

B Sashikiran   8 years AGO

5+8+(7*2) = 27
3+6+(9*4) =45
6+8+(1*3*6) =32
2+3+6(8*4) = 43

Like? Yes | No   

prasiddhi   8 years AGO

WE SEE
58+72=(5+8) + (7*2)=27
SIMILARLY for others,
Sum of digits + multiplication of digits=answer
236+84=(2+3+6)+(8*4)=43

Like? Yes | No   

Prakhar Raj    8 years AGO

7*2=14, 14+5+8=27
9*4=36, 36+3+6=45
1*3*6=18, 18+6+8=32
8*4=32, 32+2+3+6=43.
so option 7) 43

Like? Yes | No   

sharumathydeivasigamani   8 years AGO

(5+8)+(7*2)=27

Hence
(2+3+6)+(8*4) =43

Like? Yes | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

(5+8)+(7*2)=27
(3+6)+(9*4)=45
(6+8)+(1*3*6)=32
(2+3+6)+(8*4)=43

Option 7)

Like? Yes | No   

Rahul Agrawal   8 years AGO

(5+8)+(7*2)=27
(3+6)+(9*4)=45
similarly,
(2+3+6)+(8*4)=43
option 7

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Rajat Oura   8 years AGO

5+8+7*2=27
3+6+9*4=45
6+8+1*3*6=32
2+3+6+8*4=43

Like? Yes | No (1)  

imran khan   8 years AGO

58+72=27===>
5+8=13
7*2=14
13+14=27

36+94===>3+6=9
9*4=36
36+9=45

so 236+84==>
2+3+6=11
8*4=32
11+32=43

ans=option 4

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

19 Sep 2016 Sequence

What is the next number of the following sequence
53, 56, 86, 89, 119, ........

OPtion

1) 3211
2) 3322
3) 989
4) 2132
5) 911
6) 1312
7) 1211
8) 899
9) 2123
10)None of these

Solution

53 => 5+1 3+2 => 65 Reverse the number 56
56 => 5+1 6+2 => 68 Reverse the number 86
86 => 8+1 6+2 => 98 Reverse the number 89
89 => 8+1 9+2 => 911 Reverse the number 119
Similarly
119 => 1+1 1+2 9+3 => 2312 Reverse the number 2132
Option 4)

Another Possible Answer
56-53=3
86-56=30
89-86=3
119-89=30
and continuing the (30,3) addition,the next number will be 122
Option 10) is also correct

Correct Option: 4 Best Solution (85)

Kshitij   8 years AGO

The series has addition of 3 and 30 in them:
53 -> (53+3) -> (53+3+30) ->(53+3+30+3) -> (53+3+30+3+30)
i.e. 53 -> 56(53+3) -> 86(56+30) -> 89(86+3) -> 119(89+30)
so next term would be 119+3 = 122 (not in options)

Like? Yes | No   

Prakash   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

so the order is +3,+30,+3,+30......

Like? Yes | No   

nischitha   8 years AGO

3 must be added for two seques so none of these is the answer

Like? Yes | No   

Aakash Beniwal   8 years AGO

difference of 3 and 30 alternately
i.e. 53 + 03 = 56
56 + 30 = 86
86 + 03 = 89
89 + 30 = 119
so now
119 + 03 = 122

Or second logic:
add 3 to first digit, and next time add 3 to second digit. do this alternately to get 1112... so none of these

Like? Yes | No   

Siva   8 years AGO

The difference is as follows 3, 30, 3, 30 so 119+3= 122, the answer must be122.

Like? Yes | No   

Aniket Rai   8 years AGO

Sequence is +3,+30,+3,+30

Like? Yes | No   

Saumya Shankar   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

GOPIGA S KUMAR   8 years AGO

53 + 3 = 56
56 + 30 = 86
86 + 3 = 89
89 + 30 = 119
119 + 3 = 122
122 is not in the options provides so we can go for option 10)None of these

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

chandrakishor kumar   8 years AGO

Difference between two terms is 3
So 3+119 122

Like? Yes | No   

Shweta Mishra   8 years AGO

The difference of the sequence is 3,30,3,30. So, the next number will be 119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

Amit Kr Yadav   8 years AGO

53+3. =56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
so now we add 3
so 119+3=112 Ans.
option 10 none of these

Like? Yes | No   

Indrajit Bhandari   8 years AGO

The difference between the consecutive numbers in the series follow the sequence : +3, +30 and so on.
So the number next to 119 will be 119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

ujjawal kumar   8 years AGO

5 3+3=6:56
5+3=8 6:86
8 6+3=9:89
8+3=11 9:119
11 9+3=12:1112
or 1 19+3=22:122
ans=1112 or 122

Like? Yes | No   

apoorv udgir   8 years AGO

53=53+0
56=53+3
86=56+30
89=86+3
119=89+30
122=119+3
Ans 10= None of these

Like? Yes | No   

dokku vasu yadav   8 years AGO

in the sequence first two number difference is 3 and the next number difference is 30 and the next two numbers difference is 3 and the next number is 30 and the number is 119+3=122
so is not available in the options

Like? Yes | No   

Veera Vignesh   8 years AGO

53+3=56;56+30=86
86+3=89;89+30=119
119+3=122.....
so none of these

Like? Yes | No   

Chiranjeev chauhan   8 years AGO

first we adding 3 to number then adding 30 and continuing in this way the no. should come 122 which is not given in the option

Like? Yes | No   

Hitesh pal   8 years AGO

Difference of terms are in the order
3....30....3....30....?
So next terms will be 122

Like? Yes | No   

Narendra   8 years AGO

it's is number is adding +3 and next+30 and again same so answer is 122

Like? Yes | No   

Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

Simply,The series is 53,56,86,89,119,?

The difference of the above series makes a pattern of 3,30,3,30,?
then next difference is also 3.
so in original series next number=119+3=122 Ans
and this number is not matching with anyone options.
Hence option (10) is the the right answer.

Like? Yes | No   

Baddam vijay   8 years AGO

Because the second is 3 more than the first and the third is 30 more than second and that cycle repeats again

Like? Yes | No   

manish kumar   8 years AGO

answer should be 122

56+3=89
89+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

deepesh singh panwar   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

anupama   8 years AGO

because we have a difference of 3 and 33
the next no should be 121
56-53=3
89-86=3...
86-53=33
119-86=33

Like? Yes | No   

Rohit   8 years AGO

53+3=56 56+30=86
86+3=89 89+30=119
119+3=122

but 122 is not in the answer so 10 is the correct option.

Like? Yes | No   

cheedarla priyanka   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

vikas kumar   8 years AGO

56-53=3
86-56=30
and 89-86=3
119-89=30
and so on the next will b 122 so ans is option 10

Like? Yes | No   

ujjwal kumar jha   8 years AGO

the 1st difference is 3 and next one is 30 bt as it already takes the difference of 30 so the next term will be 119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

soujanya   8 years AGO

The answer is 112 because there is an alternate difference of 3 and 30 between the numbers.

Like? Yes | No   

kiruba   8 years AGO

53+3 =56
86+3=89
119+3=122
none of these

Like? Yes | No   

man mohan singh   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122
so none of these option 10.

Like? Yes | No   

codemaker   8 years AGO

series is alternatively difference of 3 and 30 so answer should be 122

Like? Yes | No   

imran   8 years AGO

diff bt two no is 3 and 119+3=121

Like? Yes | No   

indu   8 years AGO

53,56,86,89,119,?
56-53=3
89-86=3
x-119=3
x=122

Like? Yes | No   

Vaibhav Kapoor   8 years AGO

First number is 53 and second is 56.
56-53=3.
Then 86-56=30.
Then 89-86=3.
Then 119-89=30
So difference of the numbers is 3 and 30 respectively.
x-119=3
x=122

Like? Yes | No   

SAI PRATHIMA RAMAIAHGARI   8 years AGO

the difference btw them continues with 3 n 30 continously

Like? Yes | No   

Swastika Singh   8 years AGO

the series follow the pattern of +3 and +30 at alternates

Like? Yes | No   

mahaveer kumar dhaker   8 years AGO

3 ,30 ,3,30 adding the series again 3 add
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

ishita de   8 years AGO

After a pair the next number has, 10s digit increased by 3 and the units digit of the first number is the same as the previous number . And the unit's digit of the 2nd number of the pair is increased by 3 than the units digit of the first number of the pair.Hence the answer should be 1112,which is not in the option.

Like? Yes | No   

Lokeswari.D   8 years AGO

10 is the right answer because
difference between 53 & 56 is 3
at the same time 86 & 89 is also 3
so the next sequence should be 122.
in the above options there is no 122 .so the answer is
none of the above.

Like? Yes | No   

Dipanjan Mukherjee   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122
122 not there in option so ans is option 10-none of this.

Like? Yes | No   

Naveen Christopher    8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

madanpal vishwakarma    8 years AGO

The given series (53,56), (86,89) ,(119 ,?)....
so each pair have difference of 3

so the answer would be 119 +3 = 122

Like? Yes | No   

Gayathri Devi G.R   8 years AGO

53= 5 and 3
56= 5 and 3+3
86= 5+3 and 6
89= 8 and 6+3
119= 8+3 and 9
So the numbers in Tens and ones are alternately added with 3 to obtain the next term in the sequence(without changing position). Hence the next expected number is1112.

Like? Yes | No   

NOUMAN DANISH   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

harshit yadav   8 years AGO

because there is difference between first two numbers is 3 and another difference is 30. that is +3 then +30 again and acc to this answer will be 122.

Like? Yes | No   

Nitish kesarwani   8 years AGO

Taking two pair number 53 56 is increased by 3then 30 increased so none is matched

Like? Yes | No   

Rajesh   8 years AGO

Answer is 119+3 = 122
adding 3,30,3,30,3,30.....for the sequence

Like? Yes | No   

Manisha gouri   8 years AGO

given series is 53,56,86,89,119,.....
now 53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
so, answer is 119+3=122 but it is not given in the option
option is 10-none of these

Like? Yes | No   

Shubham pandey   8 years AGO

53 +3 =56
56 +30 = 86
86+3 = 89
89 +30 = 119
119 +3 = 122

Like? Yes | No   

divya   8 years AGO

bcz 1st adding 3 and then 30 to d no...hence 89+30 is 119+3 is 121...wch is not in d option

Like? Yes | No   

sireesha.yammanuru   8 years AGO

53+3 = 56
56+30 = 86
86+3 = 89
89 +30 = 119
so 119+ 3 = 122

Like? Yes | No   

Mahika   8 years AGO

The sequence for the numbers is 3,30,3,30
The next number in the squence is 122,152

Like? Yes | No   

phanikumar   8 years AGO

53-56=3
56-86=30
86-89=3
89-119=30
so next
122-119=3
122 ans is not in the options so none of these.

Like? Yes | No   

mdv ramana   8 years AGO

This sequence is like pairs (53,56) (86,89) (119,***)
(53+3, 56)+ 30 + (86+3, 89)+(119+3, 122).

Like? Yes | No   

dawalji vaibhav   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122
so, option 10

Like? Yes | No   

rohit kumar jain   8 years AGO

56-52=3
89-86=3
so
122-119=3

Like? Yes | No   

KAYAL VIZHI SUBBURAJ   8 years AGO

56-53=3
86-56=30
89-86=3
119-89=30
122-119=3
so,answer is122

Like? Yes | No   

Divya   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122.

thus answer is 10) none of these

Like? Yes | No   

ashvini kumar   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

53,56,86,89,119,.....
If we observe the sequence taking first two 53,56 here the ten's place is same and units is increased by 3.
In the second and third 56,86 this time the unit's place is same but ten's place is increased by 3.
Now third, fourth 86,89 this time again ten's place is same units increased by3
Fourth and fifth 89,119 units is same ten's increased by 3.
In the same way fifth and sixth tens should be same and units should increase by 3. It means sixth should be 1112. It was not given. Hence the right choice is 10.

Like? Yes | No   

Bhargav Tammana   8 years AGO

sequence continues with the difference of 3,30 .So the answer will be 121.

Like? Yes | No   

DUPPALA NARESH   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

sharumathydeivasigamani   8 years AGO

2nd term is obtained by adding 3 to 2nd digit of 1st term
3rd term is obtained by adding 3 to 1st digit of 2nd term

hence the next digit should be 1112 by adding 3 to the 2nd digit of the previous term.

Like? Yes | No   

TALLADA VAMSHI   8 years AGO

It is following the pattern +3 and then +30. The answer should be 122

Like? Yes | No   

Rajesh   8 years AGO

The difference between first two number is 3 and 3rd and 4th is 30 and as same as difference between 4th and 5th is 3 and 5th and 6th is 30, so next series will be 122

Like? Yes | No   

kathir selvan   8 years AGO

53, 56 difference 3 and 56,86 difference 30 so 89, 119 difference 30 and answer is 122

Like? Yes | No   

monisha   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

Saikat Mondal   8 years AGO

there is a pattern .its increasing in this following way
53,(53+3)=56,(56+30)=86,(86+3)=89,(89+30)=119,so(119+3)=121

Like? Yes | No   

prasiddhi   8 years AGO

53 56 86 89 119...
we see 5 5 8 8 11 : next 11
3 6 6 9 9 12
so 1112
option 10

Like? Yes | No   

SUSHMA REDDY   8 years AGO

de gap between de series is 53+3=,56+30=,86+3=,89+30=,119+3 so answer is 122

Like? Yes | No   

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

86-53=33
89-56=33
119-86=33
in the same way, 89+33=122
so option 10) none of these is correct answer.

Like? Yes | No   

B Sashikiran   8 years AGO

53+3 =56
56+30 =86
86+3 =89
89+30=119
119+3=122
we don't have 122 on options so the answer is none of these

Like? Yes | No   

GOKUL.B   8 years AGO

addition of 3&30 in above question. 53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122 .In the above option not in 122 so I choose the option 10

Like? Yes | No   

Rahul kumar   8 years AGO

first difference 56-53=3,86-56=30,89-86=3,119-89=30...hence this time term of 3 difference
hence 119+3=121

Like? Yes | No   

Abhishek sharma   8 years AGO

53,56,86,89,119,122...pair of two numbers having difference of 3 also difference between next and previous number gives the result number is 56-53,86-56,89-86,119-89,112-119=3,30,3,30,3

Like? Yes | No   

chhaya bhagwan marbate   8 years AGO

54+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

Venkatesh   8 years AGO

1st value+3=2nd value
2nd+30=3rd value
3rd value+3=4th alue
same repeat


53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

Divya Thakur   8 years AGO

56-56=3
86-56=30
89-86=3
119-89=30
then next number 119+3=122

Like? Yes | No   

Harshitha J   8 years AGO

The series goes like 5-2=3 so 53 the next number 5+1.i.e., 56....so the series is like x(x-2) , x(x+1) ,...

Like? Yes | No   

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

53,56,86,89,119
56-53=3
86-56=30
89-86=3
119-89=30
So,now gap of 3
122 is answer
Option 10)

Like? Yes | No   

R.Girija Sravanthi   8 years AGO

53,56 in thz both frst num r same and in 56 and86 both second nums r same and there is 2 num difference b/w the frst num according to that after 119 the nxt frst num would be 11 and for frst num 2 difference should s the num should is 12 so the ans is 1112.

Like? Yes | No   

jomon v j   8 years AGO

53+3=56
56+30=86
86+3=89
89+30=119
119+3=122
so answer is122

Like? Yes | No   

pavithra   8 years AGO

unit digit -3,6,6,9,9,12 tens-5,5,8,8,11,11 so ANS:1112

Like? Yes | No   

Amjad kattil   8 years AGO

Let 53+3= 56 add 30 to the last number of first pattern .we will gt a 86.then again add 3 to this number and we will gt 89.89+30 is equal to 119. So next letter should be 122

Like? Yes | No   

16 Sep 2016 Total profit

Raju and Sohan invest in a business in the ratio 3:2. If 5% of the total profit goes to charity and Raju's share is Rs.1710, then total profit (in rupees) is

OPtion

1) 1425
2) 1500
3) 1537.50
4) 1576
5) 2150
6) 2500
7) 2850
8) 3000
9) 3150
10)None of these

Solution

Let total profit = Rs.x
Profit to be distributed = 95% of x = 19x/20
=> Raju's share = Rs.(19x/20 * 3/5) = Rs.(57x/100)
57x/100 = 1710
x = 3000

Option 8)

Correct Option: 8 Best Solution (0)

15 Sep 2016 Value of Machine

The value of a machine depreciates at the rate of 10% per annum. If its present value is Rs.40500, what will be its worth after 2 years? What was the value of the machine 2 years ago.

OPtion

1) 131220, 200000
2) 82500, 125000
3) 42605, 60000
4) 62510, 110000
5) 38800, 100000
6) 32805, 50000
7) 52310, 105000
8) 65610, 100000
9) 72610, 110000
10)None of these

Solution

Value of the machine after 2 years = Rs.[40500*(1- 10/100)^2]
= Rs.40500*9*9/10*10 = Rs. 32805

Value of the machine 2 years ago = Rs.40500/(1-1/100)^2
= Rs.40500*10*10/9*9 = Rs.50000

32805, 50000
Option 6)

Correct Option: 6 Best Solution (77)

JAYA TRIPATHI   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 = 4050
value of machine after one year = 40500-4050 = 36450
again 10% of 36450 = 3645
therefore the value of machine after two years = 36450-3645=32805.
now let the value of machine b4 one year would
be x then
x-x*10/100=40500,
9x/10=40500
x= 45000
again, let the value of machine b4 two years would y
then,
y-y*10/100=45000
9y/10 = 45000
y = 50000
therefore the value of machine after two years and b4 two years are respectively,
32805 & 50000

Like? Yes (27) | No (14)  

prakash sharma   8 years AGO

present value of machine=40500
and it depreciates 10% every year
so after 1 year the rate of machine is 40500*(90/100)=36450
same as after 2 year the rate of machine is 36450*(90/100)=32805
And
let before 2 year the value of machine = x
then
x*(90/100)*(90/100)=Present value of machine
x*(90/100)*(90/100)=40500
=> x=(40500*100*100)/(90*90)
=> x=50000

Like? Yes (20) | No (10)  

Baishali Roy   8 years AGO

Price after 2years: 40500*(1-0.1)^2=32805
Price before 2years: 40500/(1-0.1)^2=50000
So, opt. 6) 32805, 50000 (Ans).

Like? Yes (11) | No (3)  

ayushi mishra   8 years AGO

worth after two year :p*((1-r/100)^n)
where p is the present value=40500
r is the depreciate rate=10
n is the year=2
hence after 2 year=40500*(1-10/100)^2)
=32805
2 year ago value is:p/(1-r/100)^n)
=40500/((1-10/100)^2)
=50000

Like? Yes (7) | No (2)  

Ajay Kumar Sharma   8 years AGO

Machine Value is depreciate ....
If we to to count value After 2 years than solve :-
40500*90*90/100/100
else if count value of 2 years ago solve:_
40500*100*100/90/90

Like? Yes (8) | No (3)  

Pooja Pandurang Karande   8 years AGO

4050 =10% of 40500
so 40500-4050=36450
& 10% of 36450=3645
so 36450-3645=32805
and before is also same operation
so we get 50000

Like? Yes (4) | No   

R.Jayaraman   8 years AGO

A=p(1-r/100)*n
=40500(1-10/100)*2
=32805
and
40500=p(1-10/100)*2
after simplifying
p=50000

Like? Yes (9) | No (5)  

Amit Kr Yadav   8 years AGO

now rs 40500
next year 40500-4050 =36450
then 2nd year 36450 -3645=32805
so ans is option 6.

Like? Yes (6) | No (3)  

J VIJAY KRISHNA   8 years AGO

first consider 100 percent. there is decrease in 10 percrnt each year.so
100-----90-----81
it costs is 40500 initially
100--------90------81
40500 ? ?
by multiplying 81*405 we get 32805

Like? Yes (5) | No (2)  

karthi   8 years AGO

value of the machine after 2 years =>[Rs.40500(1-10/100)^2]
=>Rs.40500*9/10*9/10
=>32805
value of the machine 2 years ago =>[Rs.40500/(1-10/100)^2]
=>Rs.40500*10/9*10/9
=>50000
option 6)

Like? Yes (3) | No   

Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

Very simple,
present value=40500,rate=10?
1)After 1st year value =40500-10? of PV
=40500-4050=36450
after 2nd year=36450-3645=32805 Ans
2)Before 2nd year=50000 because if we subtract present value and 10? of present value 2 times consecutively then we will get 40500.
Hence option (6) is the right answer.

Like? Yes (11) | No (9)  

GOPIGA S KUMAR   8 years AGO

let the present amount be x
x=40500

1 year after, the amount becomes
x-(10% of x)= 40500-4050= 36450
2 years after,
36450-(10% of 36450)=36450-3645=32805

only 1 option has 32805 (i.e) option 6 go for it!

Like? Yes (6) | No (4)  

Tireesha Chanamolu   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 =4050 40500-4050=36450 10% of 36450 is 3645 36450-3645=32805

Like? Yes (3) | No (1)  

Thoomula sandeep   8 years AGO

The depreciation of machine for two years is 19%.
so present value is 100% =40500
81% will be 32805.
And 2 yeas back Machine value is 100%.
So according to that present is 81%.
Therefore, 81%=40500 then 100% will be 50000

Like? Yes (4) | No (2)  

shivani shukla   8 years AGO

after two year value will be
p*((1-r/100)^n)
where present value =p=40500,r=10,n=2
40500*((1-10/100)^2)=32805
before 2 year value was
p/((1-r/100)^n)
40500/((1-10/100)^2)=50000

Like? Yes (9) | No (7)  

Parveen Soni   8 years AGO

let x=value before 2 years ago
value after 1st year-- 9x/10=x-(x*10*1)/100
value after 2nd year=81x/100=current value=40500 which gives x=50000 so option 6 matches no need to even calculate 2 years after.

Like? Yes (2) | No   

SHASHANK DWIVEDI   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 is 4050 subtracting 4050 from 40500 we get 36450 aftr that the frthr 10% is 3645 subtracting this from 36450 we get 32805 the process will be added to get past 2 yrs value.

Like? Yes (2) | No   

shunpriya   8 years AGO

40500*(1-10/100)^2=32805
similarly
after 2 yrs,
40500/(1-10/100)^2=50000

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Pooja Sugandhi   8 years AGO

40500*(9/10)*(9/10)=32805
40500*(10/9)*(10/9)=50000

Like? Yes (4) | No (2)  

Lakshmi Narayanan.k   8 years AGO

40500*(0.9)^2 = 32805
40500/(0.9)^2 = 50000
therefore the opt is 6

Like? Yes (2) | No   

ishaan khan   8 years AGO

value of machine after 2 years=40500(1-1/10)^2=40500*9/10*9/10=32805
value of machine 2 years ago=40500(11 /10)^2=49005

Like? Yes (3) | No (2)  

Shweta   8 years AGO

1st year : 40500 *.10 = 4050
=> 40500 - 4050 = 36450
2nd year : 36450 * .10 = 3645
=> 36450 - 3645 = 32805
Therefore option 6 is correct

Like? Yes (3) | No (2)  

malles   8 years AGO

After first year is 10% of 40500 i.e.,4050 so deduct 4050 from 40500 we get 36450
After second year 10% of 36450 i.e., 3645
now deduct from 36450 we get 32805
The only option with 32805 is option 6.
Now, we have another option i.e., option 10 which says none of these. It is also a possible option so we have to verify option 6.
Again we have to find 10% of 50000 and i.e.,5000 so deduct 5000 from 50000 we get 45000 for one year. Again 10% of 45000 i.e., 4500 now deduct from 45000 we get 40500 which is equal to the present value. So the option 6 is correct.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Shubham pandey   8 years AGO

40500- 10% of 40500
40500- 4050
36450
again 36450 - 3645 = 32805
now for 2 yrs back
40500 / 0.81 = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

kajal jayeshKumar damani   8 years AGO

bcz the value of machine is decrese 10% per annum .......so if the value of machine is 40500 and we want after 2 years what will be..... so first year 40500*10/100 =4050 so 40500-4050=36450 second year 36450*10/100 =3645 so 36450-3645= 32805......so answer is 6
we can do same way for the last years

Like? Yes (1) | No   

PINTU PRASAD GUPTA   8 years AGO

Worth value after 2 year = 40500*(1-(10/100))*(1-(10/100) = 40500*81/100=405*81=32805

Worth Value before 2 year = 40500*100/81=50000

Hence ans will be 32805 , 50000 option 6

Like? Yes (1) | No   

anurag kumar   8 years AGO

initial price is rs 40500.
after 2 yrs, price=40500(1-(10/100))^2 i.e= rs 32805


similarly, the price of it 2 years ago is = rs 40500(1+(10/100))= rs 50005.

Like? Yes (3) | No (2)  

Suraj Kesharwani    8 years AGO

For after 2 month =(90*90*40500)/100*100
=32805
For before 2 month
(40500*100*100)/90*90=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

pugazh gandhi   8 years AGO

the depreciation is 10% per annum so for 2 years
40500*(0.9)^2 = 32805
for 2 years ago
40500/(0.9)^2 = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Dharms   8 years AGO

10% of 40500=4050
for next year 40500-4050=36450
for 2 years after 36450-3645= 32805
LIKEWISE 2 years back
the value is 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

SHUBHAM GUPTA   8 years AGO

Present Value=40500
it depreciate at 10% rate
so
after 2 years its value will be : p{ [1-(r/100)] ^ n }
before 2 years its value was : p{ [1+(r/100)] ^ n}
where p is present value
r is depreciating rate
n is duration
so
After 2 years 40500 { [1-10/100]^2}=32805
Before 2 years 40500 { [1+10/100]^2}=50000
ans is
32805,50000 6)option

Like? Yes (1) | No   

indu   8 years AGO

depreciation value for After: present value*(1-Rate of depreciation/100)^years
40500(1-10/100)^2=32805
depreciation value for Ago=(Present Value)/(1-rate of depreciation/100)^years
(40500)/(1-10/100)^2=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MD ASHFAQUE HUSSAIN   8 years AGO

i)depreciation means decreasing..where the formula stands
= P(1- R/100)^n
=40500(1- 10/100)^2
=32805
ii) asking about 2 years ago price.
consider depreciate price be 40500 & let the principal price be 'x'.
so, =>40500=x(1-10/100)^2
=>x = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Anant Mishra   8 years AGO

40500-4050=36450 ----10%
36450-3645= ( 32805) 10%
after 2 years 32805
then 6 is answer

Like? Yes (1) | No   

dokku vasu yadav   8 years AGO

accorind to the machines formula
the value of a machine after years=p(1-R/100) power of n
p=40500, R=10 n=2
value of machine after 2 years=40500*9/10*9/10=32805
value of machine before 2 years=p/(1-R/100) power of n
p=40500/(1-10/100) power of 2=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Vignesh.S   8 years AGO

per year depreciation is 10% it can be written as *0.9 ie (100-10)%of cost

one year after the cost is 40500*0.9 = 36450
two year after the cost is 36450*0.9 = 32805

for previous year we have to divide the answer

one year before the cost is 40500/0.9 = 45000
two year before the cost is 45000/0.9 = 50000


therefore the answer is 32805,50000

option(6)

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

Indresh   8 years AGO

go reverse 50,000-10% =45,000
45,000-10%= 40,500 so only one option with 50,000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

Value after 2 years=40500*(1-1/10)^2
=32805
Value 2 years ago=(40500)/(1-1/10)^2=50000
Option 6)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MANIKANDAN   8 years AGO

10% of40500=4050
4050-40500=36450
10% of 36450=3645
36450-3645=32805 so after 2 years the value will be 32805

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

SATHEESH V   8 years AGO

lets us assume the value of machine 2 years ago=100 units
then present value of machine=81 units
value of the machine 2 year hence=65.61 units
if 81 units=Rs.40500/- then 1 unit=Rs.40500/81=Rs 500/-

therefore 100 units=Rs.50,000/- (2 years ago)
65.61 units =Rs.32,805/- (2 year later)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Vishnu Prakash   8 years AGO

40500-4050=36450
36450-3645=32805
Only one option with that answer

Like? Yes (1) | No   

zee   8 years AGO

value 2 years ago = 40500 * (90/100) * (90/100)
= 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

Let x be the value of machine 2 years back .
Rate of depreciation = 10%
After 2 years =40500/(0.9)^2=50000
The value after 2 years =
40500*(0.9)^2 =32805
Hence the answer is 32805,50000
The right choice is 6.

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

Sowjanya a v   8 years AGO

Let I be the rate at which machine depreciates per annum in percentage
value of machine after n years=present value*(1-I)^2
value of machine before n years=present value/(1-I)^2
given I=10/100=0.1,Present Value=40500,n=2
by substituting in the above formulas we get 32805,50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

mdv ramana   8 years AGO

present value is 40500.
10%--> 4050 then 40500-4050=36450.
10%(36450)--> 3645 then 36450-3645=32805.

simply there is only one option with this value. so option 6.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sitamaheswari   8 years AGO

p(1-(r/100))^n=40,500(1-(10/100))^2=32805
p/(1-(r/100))^n=40500/(1-(10-100))^2=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Rakesh Kumar Kohli   8 years AGO

2 years after =
40500*90*90 / (100*100) = 32805

2years before = 40500*100*100 / (90*90) = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Divya sweta   8 years AGO

10%of 40500 in 1st yr gives 4050...so remaining is 36450.. repeating same procedure we get 32805 at the end of 2yrs.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

T.Sandhya Ravali   8 years AGO

At the end of first year :40500-(40500×(10÷100))=36450
2nd year :36450-(36450×(10÷100))= 32805
We r up to option 6 now
Then check in reverse

If initial is 50000
After 1 year:50000-(50000*(10/100))=45000
Then after 2 year:45000-(45000*(10÷100))=40500.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Shreyas Das   8 years AGO

Using the formula for compound interest,we can find the value of the machine after two years.The ans is 32805.
There is only one 32805 in the list,so it should be the answer.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Pushpendra Jindal   8 years AGO

40500-40500*((1+(10/100))^2)=32805

x-x*((1+(10/100))^2)=40500
x=50000

Like? Yes (1) | No   

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

After 2 years, 40500-[40500*(10/100)]=36450
36450-[36450*(10/100)]=32805
2 years ago,
let p=50000, CI=9500
=50000-9500=40500
option 6) 32805, 50000 is the correct answer

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Rohit   8 years AGO

see we can do it very easy way.present value is 40500.after 1 year the value will be 10%less because its depreciates

[40500-(40500*10%)]
=[40500-(40500*10/100)]
=40500-4050
=36450

next year it will be

[36450-(36450*10%)]
36450-3645
=32805

Now if we the option we see that only option 6 has the value 32805 so we can crosscheck the second value 50000.
if 2 years ago its value was 50000.then after 1st year that should be
[50000-(50000*10%)]=45000
next year [45000-(45000-10%)]=40500.so we can get the present value by this.
So,problem solved.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Divya   8 years AGO

the formula used is P(1-r/100)^n

40500(1-10/100)^2

=40500(9/10)2
=405*81
=32805

Like? Yes (1) | No   

DUPPALA NARESH   8 years AGO

after 1st yr=Dep:(10*40500)/100=4050
cost=40500-4050=36450
2nd year=Dep:(10*36450)/100=3645
cost=36450-3645=32805.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

imran   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 is 4050 and sub with original val = 36450
10%of 36450 is 3645 and sub with original val = 32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Rajesh   8 years AGO

As a machine depriciates , to calculate n years after...
40500(1-10/100)^2 = 32805
to calculate n years ago
40500/(1-10/100)^2 = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

rohit kumar jain   8 years AGO

depriciation first year= 40500-10% of 40500= 36450
second year depreciation= 36450- 10% of 36450= 32805

and two year ago the value of machine was 50000 with option.

Like? Yes (3) | No (3)  

kondapuram tirumalreddy   8 years AGO

value of machine after 2 years=P[1-{R/100}]^2
==> 40500[1-{10/100}]^2=Rs.32805.

value of machine 2 years ago is given by P/[1-{R/100}]^2
==>40500/[1-{10/100}]^2=Rs.50000.

Like? Yes (3) | No (3)  

Saumya Shankar   8 years AGO

value after 2 year =40500(1- (10÷100))^2 =32805
value 2 year ago = 40500 ÷ (1 - (10÷100))^2 = 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Maholleshwari Nekkanti   8 years AGO

After two years population =90/100*90/100*40500=32805
let Two years ago population be x then,
90*x/100*90/100=40500
x=50000

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

megha agarwal   8 years AGO

present value = 40500
depreciation rate=10% per annum
A=P(1+R/100)^T
R=rate (for depreciation rate=-R)
worth after 2 years= 40500(1-10/100)^2=32805
worth 2 years before=40500/(1-10/100)^2=50000

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

veeranjaneyulu   8 years AGO

40500->100% THEN 90%=36450(AFTR 1 YEAR)
36450->100% THEN 90%=32805(AFTER 2 YEARS)

40500->90% THEN 100%=45000(1 YEAR BEFORE)
45000->90% THEN 100%=50000(BEFORE 2 YEARS)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Siddharth   8 years AGO

Value after 2 years = 40500*(1 - 10/100)^2
Value before 2 years = 40500/(1 - 10/100)^2

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

ABHISHEK KUMAR   8 years AGO

Depreciation formula= P(1-r/100)^n
putting the values we get ₹32805 as it's value after two years.

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

MUKUL BAGRE   8 years AGO

Successive depreciations of 10% and 10% equals 19%. so after 2 years value reduces to 81% of 40500 which is 32805.
Also, 81% of previous value equals 40500, so previous value equals 50000 (40500/0.81).

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Sadanand agarwal   8 years AGO

2years after resultant â„… decrease is (-10-10+{(-10*-10)/100)=-19
So 19â„… of 40500 is=7695
So 40500-7695=32805

Only 6th option suit it so ans is option 6

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Karthik devarakonda   8 years AGO

the machine value after two years must be less than 40500.so all options except 5,6 eliminate. machine value before two years must be less than or equal to 50000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Juhi Agarwal   8 years AGO

Final value is Rs.40500
depreciates at rate 10% , 2 years ago by using formula
f=I(1-r%/100)^t ,40500/0.81=50000
After two years = f=I(1-r%/100)^t,f=40500*.81=32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Padmatejaswi   8 years AGO

1st year 10%of40500=4050
So after 1year amount=40500-4050=36450
Next year=36450-(36450%10)=32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

MAYANK   8 years AGO

let 1 year ago,your amount was x,,then reducing 10%from it,,it become 9x/10=40500,so x=45000,,same process again, 1 yr before from now,its value is y,so reducing 10%,9y/10=45000,,so y=50000,,so in only sixth option it has 50000 value ,,so ans is option 6.

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Samruddha   8 years AGO

10% of 40500=4050 ,so for 1st year value of machine=40500-4050=36450,now for 2nd year 10%of 36450=3645,so 36450-3645=32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

value of machine after 2year=40500(90/100)^2
=32805
value of machine before 2year=40500(100/90)^2
50000
option 6
########!!!!!!!!!!!!#########

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

aishwarya pandey   8 years AGO

10% of 40500 is 4050 so for next year it becomes 40500-4050=36450
for next second year 10% of 3650 is 3645 so it becomes 36450-3645= 32805 (for next 2 years)
similarly for 2 years ago we add the 10% with the total ruppees like considering 50000 its 10% is 5000 so for next year 50000-5000=45000 and for another next it should be 45000-4500=40500 which given presently so ans 6 is correct option..

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

Mridula Shaw   8 years AGO

By depreciating 10% annually on Rs.40500 for 2 yrs=Rs.32805
By increment 10% annually on Rs.40500 for 2 yrs=Rs.50000

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

phanikumar   8 years AGO

10 % of 40500 is 4050 and after subtracted that 36450 then again the 10% in that is 3645 again we subtracted get answer 32805 . 2nd one 2 ago means they given 90% valu 40500 then 100% is 45000 then again we find 2 years back it means 90% is 45000 then the 100% of 45000 is 50000 then the option is 6

Like? Yes (2) | No (4)  

Monika   8 years AGO

The principal amount is 40500. So,calculate the interest with P = 40500 r= 10 % and n = 1 and subtract that with principal. Now again with the new principal is 36450 calculate the interest again and subtract the interest again . Now the principal will be 32805

Like? Yes (1) | No (4)  

14 Sep 2016 Code for HANSHU

Some names code are give below
ANAND = 4
DEEP = 16
BHUWNESH = 8
then
HANSHU = ?

OPtion

1) 15
2 20
3) 12
4) 10
5) 17
6) 11
7) 18
8) 19
9) 13
10)21

Solution

A(1), B(2), C(3), D(4), E(5), F(6), G(7), H(8), I(9), J(10), K(11), L(12), M(13), N(14), O(15), P(16), Q(17), R(18), S(19), T(20), U(21), V(22), W(23), X(24), Y(25), Z(26)

Codes are offered on the basis of positions of last alphabet used in the name

HANSHU = 21
Option 10)

Correct Option: 10 Best Solution (85)

aishwarya pandey   8 years AGO

A=1 B=2 C=3 D=4 E=5 F=6 G=7 H=8 I=9 J=10 K=11 L=12 M=13 N=14 O=15 P=16 Q=17 R=18 S=19 T=20 U=21 V=22 W=23 X=24 Y=25 Z=26
ANAND , D comes on 4th place hence ANAND=4
DEEP , P comes on 16th position DEEP=16
BHUWNESH , H comes on 8 position so BHUWNESH=8
so HANSHU U comes on 21 position hence HANSHU=21

Like? Yes (1) | No   

shivani shukla   8 years AGO

A=1 B=2 C=3 D=4 E=5 F=6 G=7 H=8 I=9 J=10 K=11 L=12 M=13 N=14 O=15 P=16 Q=17 R=18 S=19 T=20 U=21 V=22 W=23 X=24 Y=25 Z=26
as in ANAND , D is on 4 position therefore ANAND=4
in DEEP , P is on 16 position therefore DEEP=16
in BHUWNESH , h is on 8 position therefore BHUWNESH=8
so in HANSHU , u is on 21 position therefore HANSHU=21

Like? Yes (1) | No   

rajvir singh   8 years AGO

numbering all the alphabets
and the code stands for just the last letter
D=4
p=16
H=8
thereby U=21

Like? Yes (1) | No   

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

ANAND = 4( D is the 4th letter )
DEEP =16 (P is 16th letter)
BHUWNESH = 8 ( H is 8 th letter )
Then HANSHU = 21 ( U is 21 st letter)
Hence the choice is 10.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

harsh dhir   8 years AGO

D=4
P=8
H=8
similarly U=21

Like? Yes | No   

Abhilash rajput   8 years AGO

1.)D =4
2.)P=16
3.)H=8
4.)U=21

Like? Yes | No   

Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

Simply it is taking corresponding number to the last alphabet of each word.
ie D-4
P-16
H-8
then U will be 21 Ans
Hence option (10) is the right answer.

Like? Yes | No   

pugazh gandhi   8 years AGO

last letter value ex. A=1, B=2, C=3......
ANAND - last letter D=4
DEEP - last letter P=16
likewise HANSHU - last letter U=21

Like? Yes | No   

Amit Kr Yadav   8 years AGO

anand d = 4
deep p = 16
bhuwnesh h =8
hanshu u= 21

Like? Yes | No   

Sandip Das   8 years AGO

ANAND=4 in alphabetical order D is hold 4rth position
DEEP=16 P is holding 16th position
BHUWNESH=8 H is holding 8th position
similarly
HANSHU=21
because U is holding 21 position (option 10)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

madanpal vishwakarma    8 years AGO

it's the position of last alphabet

ANAND = 1 14 1 14 4 =4

DEEP = 4 5 5 16 = 16

BHUWNESH = 2 8 21 23 14 5 19 8 =8

so

HANSHU = 8 1 14 19 8 21 =21

so option 10 is correct .

Like? Yes | No   

posam rupesh   8 years AGO

d = 4
p = 16
h = 8
u = 21

Like? Yes | No   

phanikumar   8 years AGO

the ending letter are ANAND last D means 4 and DEEP last letter P is 16 and BHUWNESH last letter H is 8 then HANSHU U laste letter is 21 answer is 21

Like? Yes | No   

deepansh   8 years AGO

ANAND last word is D so its 4th Alaphabet so its no. is 4 and so the For the HANSHU last letter is U and its at no. 21 so the answer is 21

Like? Yes | No   

GOPIGA S KUMAR   8 years AGO

A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 ...... Z-26
ANAN'D' D-4
DEE'P' P-16
BHUWNES'H' H-8
HANSH'U' U-21

Like? Yes | No   

Kunal nemu   8 years AGO

from alphabet position
in ANAND last digit D where position is 4
in DEEP , p position is 16
in BHUWNESH , H position is 8
same HANSHU ,last digit U is position in alphabet series is 21

Like? Yes | No   

ayushi mishra   8 years AGO

In alphabet A to Z , if we giving numbering 1 to 26 then
in ANAND, d comes on 4 position , ANAND=4
in DEEP, p comes on 16 position DEEP=16
in BHUWNESH, H comes on 8 position BHUWNESH=8
so in HANSHU , U comes on 21 position HANSHU=21

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

parita bomb   8 years AGO

in ANAND,last letter that is D is 4th alphabet, in DEEP P is 16th letter.Similarly in HANSHU U is 21st letter

Like? Yes | No   

sanjeet kumar   8 years AGO

Words last alphabet shows the corresponding numeric values.
So U = 21

Like? Yes | No   

Dhaval Vekariya   8 years AGO

d=4
p=16
h=8
u=21

Like? Yes | No   

prakash sharma   8 years AGO

Answer is weighed code of last character
like ANAND=4 means Weighted code of D
DEEP=16 means weighted code of p
so HANSHU=21 because weighted code of U is 21

Like? Yes | No   

Saket Srivastav   8 years AGO

we will take all the alphabet's numbering like A=1 B=2 C=3----- and so on
in ANAND, D comes on 4 position ,ANAND=4
in DEEP, P comes on 16 position ,DEEP= 16
in BHUWNESH , H comes on 8 position , BHUWNESH=8
so in HANSHU , U comes on 21 position, HANSHU=21

Like? Yes | No   

aakash singhal   8 years AGO

d=4
p=16
h=8
u=21

Like? Yes | No   

Pooja Pandurang Karande   8 years AGO

ANAND=4 ,D=4
DEEP=16...P=16
BHUWNESH=8, H=8
SO ...
HANSHU=21,,,U=21

Like? Yes | No   

JAYA TRIPATHI   8 years AGO

ANAND = 4 , CODE OF D = 4 (ACCORDING TO ALPHABETICAL ORDER).
DEEP = `16, CODE OF P = 16
BHUWNESH = 8, CODE OF H = 8
THEREFORE,
HANSHU = 21, CODE FOR U = 21

Like? Yes | No   

praneeth   8 years AGO

ANAND name last digit number D is 4
DEEP name last letter is P is number 16
SOOOOOO..........
HANSHU is 21 because U number is 21

Like? Yes | No   

Sumit Gupta   8 years AGO

In every word's last letter value will be the value of word hence here for
ANAND=4(D=4)
DEEP=16(P=16)
BHUWNESH=8(H=8)
HANSHU=21(U=21)

Like? Yes | No   

Vignesh.S   8 years AGO

write number for each alphabet in that the number for the end letter is code

1. ANAND ends with D number for D is 4 hence 4 is code
2. DEEP ends with P number for P is 16 hence 16 is code
3. BHUWNESH ends with H number for h is 8 hence code is 8



therefor HANSHU ends with U the number for U is 21 hence code is 21
Answer is 21

option (10)

Like? Yes | No   

ramya   8 years AGO

A=1, B=2..............Y=25, Z=26
so
D=4
P=16
H=8
then U=21

Like? Yes | No   

Anant Mishra   8 years AGO

last character of every word
D= 4
P=16
H=8
then
U=21

Like? Yes | No   

Dharms   8 years AGO

take last letter in the word and number it.
likewise
d=4
e=16
h=8
u=21

Like? Yes | No   

KARTHIKEYAN S   8 years AGO

The equivalent number for the last letter for every word is the key.
ananD - 4
deeP-16
bhuvnesH-8. so for hanshU , it will be 21.

Like? Yes | No   

PINTU PRASAD GUPTA   8 years AGO

here coded value of each word is the position of last letter in alphabet i.e
ANAND LAST LETTER D = 4
DEEP LAST LETTER P = 16
BHUWNESH LAST LETTER H = 8
THERE FOR HANSHU LAST LETTER U = 21 ANS.

Like? Yes | No   

monisha   8 years AGO

ANAND=4 "LAST LETTER POSITION IS 4".ie A=1,B=2...
DEEP=16 "LAST LETTER POSITION IS 16"
SIMILARLY
HANSU=21

Like? Yes | No   

pranav   8 years AGO

given no is the no. of last word in alphabets order
so u=21

Like? Yes | No   

Ankush Lakhmani   8 years AGO

D=4
P=16
H=8
Likewise U=21

Like? Yes | No   

mohan m   8 years AGO

Because the letter of the name HANSHU occurs at 21st position of the alphabet

Like? Yes | No   

Abhilash   8 years AGO

U = 21 th letter..
since D =4
P =16
H=8

Like? Yes | No   

renuka.o75@gmail.com    8 years AGO

in every name we took last letter number
IN AN AND last letter number is 4
like wise
HANSHU last letter U IS 21

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abinanth    8 years AGO

last letter anand d =4th letter
deep p=16th letter
bhuwnesh. H =8 th letter
like
hanshu u =21 letter

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gulshan   8 years AGO

anand=5 => d=4
deep=16 => p=16
bhuwnesh=8 => h=8
then
hanshu=?(21) => u=21
tht's my ans 21

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prasanna kumar   8 years AGO

consider the last letters of the word in numerical order
d=4,p=18,h=8,u=21

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Durga Srilekha Jammalamadaka   8 years AGO

ANAND=4+14+4+14+4 last letter D=4
DEEP=4+5+5+16 last letter P=16
BHUWNESH=2+8+21+23+14+5+19+8 last letter H=8
HANSHU=8+1+14+19+8+21 last letter U=21

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Rajesh   8 years AGO

last letter of Deep is P = 16
last letter of anand is D = 4

hanshu is U = 21

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Shubhayan Saha   8 years AGO

only the numeric value of the last digit is applicable for this series completion

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DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

D=4
P=16
H=8
Therefore,U=21
Option 10)

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Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

The number of last letter in alphabetical order is used.
D is 4th so Anand=4
p is 16th so deep=16
h is 8th so bhuwnesh=8
u is 21st so hanshu=21

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Akash Yadav   8 years AGO

d= 4
p=16
h=8
u=21

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karthi   8 years AGO

Last letter of ANAND is "D"= 4(alphabetic order)
Last letter of DEEP is "P"= 16(alphabetic order)
Last letter of BHUWNESH is "H"= 8(alphabetic order)
then,
Last letter of HANSHU is "U"= 21(alphabetic order)

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malles   8 years AGO

corresponding place of last letters D=4,P=16,H=8,so the answer for HANSHU i.e.,U=21

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MP    8 years AGO

Last letter of ANAND is D.. 4th letter. So code is 4.
Last letter of DEEP is P.. 16th letter .. so code is 16.
..
similarly last letter of HANSHU is U ... 21 st letter .. so code is 21.

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Khanna   8 years AGO

Last alphabet of HANSHU is U which is 21 st letter starting from A.
so code for HANSHU is 21 ... option 10.

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swinal   8 years AGO

each number comprised with the last letter of the word... so U comprised with 21st letter of the alphabate series.

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Devireddy Jashuva   8 years AGO

ANAND = 4 D=4
DEEP=16 P=16
BHUWNESH=8 H=8
Similarly
HANSHU=21 U=21

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dinesh   8 years AGO

the last letter of word is compared with numerical order of alphabates

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Manisha gouri   8 years AGO

He discussed about last alphabets in the word
so ANAND LAST ALPHABET IS D =4
DEEP last alphabet is P=16
BHUWNESH last alphabet is H=8
HANSHU last alphabet is U=21

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sharumathydeivasigamani   8 years AGO

In every name the position of the last alphabet in that name is coded.
ie. DEEP = P is 16 th alphabet

ANAND = D is 4 th alphabet

BHUWNESH = H is 8 th alphabet

hence,
in HANSHU = U is 21 st alphabet.

so ans is 21

Like? Yes | No   

Mudiya Ramya sree   8 years AGO

The code represents the number of correspoding last alphabet
D=4;
P=16;
H=8;
So,
U=21.

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PRAGATHI G   8 years AGO

the number in alphabets of last letter of the word is the answer

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NALLA RAGHUVARAN   8 years AGO

anand----->d=4
deep------->p=16
bhuwnesh------->h=8
then hanshu------------>u=21

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Samruddha   8 years AGO

last alphabet sequence in alphabet table is the code for word.
D=4 ;p=16 ;H=8 U=21

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SWAPNA GOURASANI   8 years AGO

The last letter in every word is coded according to its alphabetical order .similarly "u "in hanshu is coded as 21

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Chitrala Venkatesh Babu   8 years AGO

for every name given above ,the last letter's position in alphabet will be the required answer

for HANSHU U-21

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Ashish Sinha   8 years AGO

in the every word last word place in the alphabet
D=4
P=16
H=8
U=21

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SANDEEP KUMAR   8 years AGO

In the every word last digit rank in the alphabet is given
D=4
P=16
H=8
so
U=21

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Payal Sasmal   8 years AGO

ANAND taking D-4
Deep taking p-16
BHUWNESH taking H -8
so HANSHU taking u -21

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JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

Let A=1,B=2,C=3,.........,Y=25,Z=26
In ANAND, the last letter is D=4
In DEEP, last letter is P=16
In BHUWNESH, the last letter is H=8
so, for HANSHU, the last letter is U=21
answer is option 10) 21

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Ashra Ahmed Saied   8 years AGO

the result is the value of the last alphabet. In the case of HANSHU ... value of 'U' is 21

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snehitha   8 years AGO

the value of word is its value of last digit
hence HANSHU=21 (U=21)

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tanu   8 years AGO

anand > d=4 (last letter)
deep> p=16
bhuwnesh> h=8
therefore, hanshu> u=21

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RAHUL GUPTA   8 years AGO

ANAND----- D=4
DEEP---- P=16
BHUWNESH---- H=8
similarly
HANSHU----U=21

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Vishnu Prakash   8 years AGO

D->4
P->16
H->8
U->21

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PALLAB PATRA   8 years AGO

D=10,
P=16,
H=8,
U=21 (ans).

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Anupam Roy   8 years AGO

LAST LETTERS NUMBER POSITION AS U IS AT 21TH POSITION O ALPHABETIC ORDER

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SHUBHAM GUPTA   8 years AGO

D=4
P=16
H=8
So
U=21 ans

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Rita Chauhan   8 years AGO

My answer is opton 10 that is 21 because in every word the last alphabet number value is given ,like anand =4 where d comes at 4 number ,similarly for hanshu where u comes at number 21

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rohit kumar jain   8 years AGO

Anand
d = 4 in alphabetical order
Deep
p= 16
Bhuvnesh
h= 8
so hanshu
u=21

Like? Yes | No   

Gosula.rajesh   8 years AGO

end letters of given words D=4,P=16,H=8,then U=21

Like? Yes | No   

Monika   8 years AGO

value of the last letter is seen,the letter u holds the value 21

Like? Yes | No   

Kumaran   8 years AGO

The last letter is the Key
D=4
P=16
H=8
so U=21

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Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

The positional value of the last letter of the word is the code for that word.
ANAND = 4 (D = 4)
DEEP = 16 (P = 16)
Similarly,
HANSHU = 21 (U = 21)

Like? Yes | No   

Sowjanya a v   8 years AGO

Alphabets from a to z are numbered 1 to 26.
Last alphabet of ANAND is D & is numbered 4
Similarly P= 16,H=8,U=21
So answer is 21
Names are coded with the last alphabet number.

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Sruthi S Nair   8 years AGO

Give the values for the alphabets from a-z as 1-26
The code for each name is the value of the last letter.for hanshu the value is 21

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SUDHIR CHAUDHARY   8 years AGO

in ANAND, D=4 FROM A to Z series index
a=1,b=2,c=3,d=4.....z=26
in DEEP , P=16
in BHUWNESH, H=8

similarly HANSHU, U=21
ans= 10 i.e, 21

Like? Yes | No   

Lakshmi Narayanan.k   8 years AGO

the last letter denotes the number.
ANAND = 4(D represents the 4th letter in alphabets)
similarly, HANSHU (U) is the 21st letter in alphabet
option 10 is the answer.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

13 Sep 2016 Man at work

Six men do a piece of work in 10 days with an effort of 6 hours per day. How many extra men are required for doing the work of double strength in 4 days with an effort of 5 hours per day

OPtion

1) 2
2) 3
3) 1
4) 4
5) 5
6) 6
7) 7
8) 8
9) 9
10)0

Solution

We know that for the question, the best shortcut is
Work * no. of men * days * hours = constant
1 * 6 * 10 * 6 = 2 * x * 4 * 5
360 = 40 x
x = 9
Hence no. of extra men required are 3

Option 2)

Correct Option: 2 Best Solution (12)

Avinash Singh   8 years AGO

1 man's work in hour = 1/360
now double strength= 1/180
In 20 hours, men required = 180/20=9
Hence 3 extra men. option 2) 3

Like? Yes (1) | No   

phanikumar   8 years AGO

6*6*x*10=y*2x*5*4 that is equal to 9 so 9-6=3 so we required extra 3 men's

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G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

The men Required = 6*(6/5)*(10/4)*(1/2) = 9
The excess noumber required is 9 - 6 =3
Hence the right choice is 2

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Gokulapriya    8 years AGO

10:4(days indirect propotitional)
6:5(hrs indirect)
1:2(strength direct)
6:x
10*6*1*6=4*5*2*x
x=9
9-6=3
so our option 2 is the answer

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sachin soni   8 years AGO

Work of double strength means the capacity of each man doing work doubles.
hence applying man_days c oncept we get
6*6*10=5*4**2*m
=>m=9
hence extra men are 3
hence option 2 is correct.

Like? Yes | No   

payal   8 years AGO

as per question 6 men work 6 hours each day n complete work in 10 days
as 1 hour 1 day work will be ..1/60
we want work to be completed in 4 days plus 5 hours each day so.....i.e 1/20...so...no. of men required will be 3....

Like? Yes | No   

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

6*10*6=X*4*5
X=18
a boy work with double strength.so 18/2=9 boys is required
the extra boys=9-6=3 boys

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Shubham Kumar   8 years AGO

6*6*10*1 = 4*5*2*M
M=9
so 3 men more will be required

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gulshan   8 years AGO

6*10*6*1(efficiency)=2(effici)*4*5*x
x=9
9-6=3(extra men)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

360 = 40*x
=> x = 9
Required number of extra men = 9 - 6 = 3

Like? Yes | No (1)  

surendra yalamarthi   8 years AGO

6 men do a work in 10 days by working 6 hours per day i.e., each men work for 60 hours. now the same work in 4 days by working 5 hours per day i.e.,20 hours by each men
no. of men=(6*20)/60=2 men

Like? Yes | No (1)  

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

6*6*10=[(6+x)*4*5]/2
x=30
extra man 30
option 2

Like? Yes | No (2)  

12 Sep 2016 Sequence

What is the next number of the following sequence
36, 49, 53, 79, 88, 127, 156,.....

OPtion

1) 234
2) 172
3) 198
4) 208
5) 189
6) 165
7) 169
8) 221
9) 178
10)None of these

Solution

(36, 49), (53, 79), (88, 127), (156,....)
36+13 49
53+26 79
88+39 127
156+52 208

Option 4)

Correct Option: 4 Best Solution (7)

PINTU PRASAD GUPTA   8 years AGO

different between pair of two no :
13 ,26 , 39 ....... next will be 52
49-36=13
79-53=26
127-88=39
let next no be x -156=52
x=52+152=208 ans.

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

Sandip Das   8 years AGO

49-36=13
79-53=26
127-88=39
similarly
x-156=52
x=208 (option 4)

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Nitin   8 years AGO

diff is like 13 ,14,2*13,9,3*13,29,then next term will be the sum of last no & 4*13 which is 156+52=208

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monisha   8 years AGO

49-36=13
79-53=26
127-88=39
156-X=52
X=156+52=208
13,26,39,52... multiples of 13

Like? Yes | No   

ramyaraj   8 years AGO

36+(13×1)=49
53+(13×2)=79
79+(2^3+1)=88
88+(13×3)=127
127+(3^3+2)=156
so
156+52=208

Like? Yes | No   

deepansh   8 years AGO

49-36=13
53-49=4
79-53=26
88-79=8
127-88=39
156-127=29
hence the table of 13 is difference so next diff between two number will 52 so the number is 208.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Lakshmi Narayanan.k   8 years AGO

36,49,53,79,88,127,156,?
36+13=49
53+26=79
88+39=127
156+52=208(OPTION 4)

Like? Yes | No (2)  

09 Sep 2016 Population of town

The population of town is 352800. If it increases annually at 5%, what will be its population 2 years hence. What was it 2 years ago?

OPtion

1) 328972, 284400
2) 194481, 160000
3) 346768, 300000
4) 216642, 172000
5) 420252, 380000
6) 365680, 314500
7) 276842, 244000
8) 388962, 320000
9) 198854, 156000
10)None of these

Solution

Population after 2 years = 352800* (1+ 5/100)^2
= 352800 * 21/20 * 21/20 = 388962

Population 2 years ago = 352800 / (1+ 5/100)^2
= 352800 * 20/21 * 20/21
= 320000

388962, 320000
Option 8)

Correct Option: 8 Best Solution (52)

ayushi mishra   8 years AGO

2 year hence population is
p*((1+r/100)^n)
p=population=352800,r=5,n=2
352800*((1+5/100)^2)=388962
2 year ago,
P/((1+r/100)^n)
352800/((1+5/100)^2)=320000

Like? Yes (11) | No (4)  

himanshu   8 years AGO

just use the formula ,p=P(1+(growthrate/100))^n
where n is no. of year
to calulate 2 year ago use p=P(1-(growthrate/100))^n

Like? Yes (15) | No (9)  

sanjeet kumar   8 years AGO

5% of 352800 = 17640
Now 352800 + 17640 = 370440
Total population after 10 years = 370440 + 5% of 370440 = 388962.
Then using the given data we see 10 years ago the population was 320000.
Since 5% of 32000 and again 5% of the obtained numbers gives the same result

Like? Yes (7) | No (2)  

Ankit Sharma   8 years AGO

2 Year Hence -
1st year => 352800*5/100=17640 => 352800+17640=370440
2nd year =>370440*5/100=18522 => 370440+18522=388962

2 year ago-
352800*100/105=336000
336000*100/105=320000
so answer is option 8,
388962,320000

Like? Yes (3) | No   

BIKRAM DEBNATH   8 years AGO

Total Increase rate in 2 yrs = 5+5+(5*5/100) % = 10.25%
So after 2 yrs total population will be 352800+ 352800*10.25% = 388962,
Let Before 2yrs population was x, 2 yrs ago it was x+ x*10.25%= 352800, x = 320000... Hence ans is option 8

Like? Yes (4) | No (2)  

Vishnu Prakash   8 years AGO

By adding 5% of population of town successively for two times, we get population after 2 years and similarly for 2 years ago.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

PINTU PRASAD GUPTA   8 years AGO

let population 2 year ago is x :
population after 1 year = x(1+5/100)= x*21/20
population after 2nd year = x*21/20(1+5/100) = x*21*21/400 this is current population 352800
x= 400 * 352800/441= 400*800 = 320000

population after 2 year = 352800*21*21/400=388962

answer will be : 8) 388962 , 320000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Vijay   8 years AGO

actually it is 352800 .After two years it becomes 388962.
before 2 years it is 320000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

mohana priya.k   8 years AGO

populatoin after n years=p(1+r/100)^n
therefore, population after 2 years=352800(1+5/100)^2
=388962
population n years ago=p/(1+r/100)^n
therefore 2 years ago=352800/(1+5/100)^2
=320000

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

karthi   8 years AGO

GIVEN: P=352800,R=5%,n=2
population after 2 yr=P(1+R/100)^n
=352800(1+5/100)^2
=352800(100+5/100)^2
=352800(21/20*21/20)
=388962
population 2yr ago =P/(1+R/100)^n
=352800/(1+5/100)^2
=352800*20/21*20/21
=320000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

G.S.Kantharao   8 years AGO

Population = 352800
Increse rate = 5% per annum
After 2 years population=
352800(21/20)^2=388962
Two years backk populatiin= 352800(20/21)^2 =320000
Hence the answer is 388962,320000.
Right choice is 8.

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

Samjukta Das   8 years AGO

Population after n years=P(1+R/100)^n
So 352800(1+5/100)^2
388962

Population before n years=P/(1+R/100)^n
So 352800/(100+5/100)^2
320000

Like? Yes | No   

lakshmi sahithi   8 years AGO

p=352800(1+5/100)^2=388962
p(1+5/100)^2=352800=320000 is ago two years

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DEVANSH SUBNANI   8 years AGO

Population 2 years hence=352800*(105/100)*(105/100)=388962
Population 2 years ago=320000*(105/100)*(105/100)=352800
Option 8)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Gayathri Murugesan   8 years AGO

5% of 352800 is 17640 then after 1 year, population will become 370440. 5% of 370440 is 18522 thereafter after 2 years population will be 388962.
5 % of 320000 is 16000, before 1 year population will be 336000. 5% of 336000 is 16800 therefore at present population is 336000+16800 = 352800.
Hence the correct answer is option 8

Like? Yes | No (1)  

harshit agarwal   8 years AGO

352800+5% of 352800
352800+17640=370440
370440+5% 370440
370440+18522=388962

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

brijesh tripathi   8 years AGO

for calculating 2 year hence population we use this formula
a=p(1+r/100)^n
then =352800(1+5/100)^2=388962
and
calculating 2 years ago population by this formula p/[1+r/100]^n
352800/[1+5/100]^2=32000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

deb   8 years AGO

2 years after 352800(1+5/100)^2=388962. 2 years ago 352800/(1+5/100)^2=320000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

NIKHIL   8 years AGO

35200(1+5/100)^2=388962
35200(1-5/100)^2=320000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

pugazh gandhi   8 years AGO

5% increase from 352800
352800*1.05=370440
for second year
370440*1.05=388962

so ans is opt 8

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Anant Mishra   8 years AGO

consecutive % formula
a+b+ab/100

after 2 years
5+5+5*5/100=10.25%
352800+(10.25*3528)=388962

before 2 years
x +(10.25*x)=352800
then x=320000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

pranav   8 years AGO

let given population be "x" therefore
after one year population will be y= x+ .05x
therefore after two years population will be z= y+.05y
which will be 388962
now for one year before we are given population of one year after, therefore a+.05a=352800, a=336000
one year before , b+.05b=a=336000,b=320000
so option 8 is correct

Like? Yes | No (1)  

A.KARTHIKA   8 years AGO

population now=352800
1 yr hence= 352800*(105/100)=370440
2 yrs hence= 370440*(105/100)= 388964
ans:- 8) 388964

Like? Yes | No (1)  

dhruv chaubey   8 years AGO

105%of 352800=sum
105%of sum=population aftr 2yrs= 388962
similarly do it for 2years ago

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Deepapriya.s   8 years AGO

formula:p(1+r/100)^n
here p=352800,n=2,r=5%
so
352800(1+5/100)^2=388962
similarly for the 2 years back we get
a(1+5/100)^2=352800
here a is the population of the town and it is increased by 352800 for two years is already we know .
p=352800/(1.05*1.05)=320000.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

prakash sharma   8 years AGO

let the population of two year ago=x
then according to puzzle (x*105/100)*105/100=352800
so x=320000 means population of two year ago was=320000
then now
after two year (352800*105/100)*105/100=388962

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

CI=352800[(21/20)^2-1]
CI=36162
POPULATION AFTER 2 YEARS=388962
X+(X/20)+(X/20)+(X/400)=352800
X=320000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

nimisha gupta   8 years AGO

For 2 years hence,
105% *(105% *352800)
=388962

For 2 years ago,
X=(352800*100*100)/(105*105)
=320000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Chitrala Venkatesh Babu   8 years AGO

population after n years=p(1+(r/100))^2
population after 2 years=352800*(441/400)
=388962

population before n years=p(1+(r/100))^2
population before 2 years=352800/(441/400)
=320000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Rahul Das   8 years AGO

For 2 years hence,
After 1st year =(352800+17640)
After 2nd year=388962
For 2 years ago,
1 year before = (320000+16000)=336000
and 352800 is present population

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Jyoti Adwani   8 years AGO

1.for 2 years hence->5% of 352800=17640,hence population after 1 year 3,70440 and 5% of 3,70440=18522and hence population after 2 yrs =388962
2. with similar reasoning lets population yrs ago be x and hence current population is 1.1025x and hence x=320000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Laxmi Thakkannavar   8 years AGO

Population after 2 year is given by=352800(1+(5/100))^2
which is equal to 388962
and population before 2 years ago was=352800/(1+(5/100))^2
which is equal to=320000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Prantik Chatterjee   8 years AGO

simple formula

New populations=old(1+r/100)^n

Like? Yes | No (1)  

akash patel   8 years AGO

we apply simple formoola of math and put value and solve it

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

Devireddy Jashuva   8 years AGO

352800*(105/100)*(105/100)=388962
x*(105/100)*(105/100)=352800 then x=320000

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Gandham bharath   8 years AGO

population 2 years hence= p*(1+(r/100))^n
population 2 years ago= P/(1+(r/100))^n
where p=352800, r=5%, n=2.
therefore, by sub we get solution as 388962,320000

Like? Yes | No (2)  

Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

Very simple given that p=352800,r=5?,t=2years

1)After 2 years population is p[1+r/100]^t=352800[1+5/100]^2=388962

2)2 years ago population is p/[1+r/100]^t=352800/[1+5/100]^2=320000

Hence option (8) is the right answer.

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SHUBHAM GUPTA   8 years AGO

increase of 5% in 1 year =370440
increase of 5% in 2 year =388962
similarly
it was 320000 back 2 years.
as
for past 1 yr 105% of x=352800
so x=336000
for past 2 yr 105% of x=336000
so x=320000

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tejaswi A   8 years AGO

352800+(352800*5/100)=370440
hence population after 1 yr=370440
hence after one more year=388962
only 8th option contains first answer=388962 ..hence option 8

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sonal agrawal   8 years AGO

p = 352800
1st year = 352800 (1.05)
=3,70,440
2nd year= 3,70,440 (1.05)
= 3,88,962
let 2year ago be x
1st year = x (1.05)=1.05x
2nd year = (1.05)^2x =(1.1025)x

(1.1025)x = 3,52,800
x = 3,20,000

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Lakshmi Narayanan.k   8 years AGO

352800*1.05*1.05=388962
X*1.05*1.05=352800
X=320000.(option 8)

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Vignesh.S   8 years AGO

since it is given as every year the population is increased by 5% so every year the population is multiplied by 1.05

therefor for 1year after the population is
352800*1.05 = 370440
after two year the population is 370440 *1.05 = 388962


similiarly we have to divide for previous year therefore

1 year before the population is 352800/1.05 =336000
2 year before the poipulation is 336000/1.05 = 320000

therefor the answer is 388962,320000 option (8)

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ujjawalkumar    8 years AGO

formula is :
p(1+/- r/100)^m

where p= current population
r= rate of increase or decrease
m=no. of month

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Pallavi Pawar   8 years AGO

1st year = 352800*5/100=17640
Population after one year = 352800+17640=370440
Population after 2nd year = 370440+370440*5/100=388962

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Mayank Kumar   8 years AGO

5% of 352800 = 17640,
352800+17640= 370440

5% of 370440 =18522
370440+18522= 388962.

(5% of x) + x = 352800,
x =336000

(5% of y) +y = 336000
y = 320000

hence option 8 is correct

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Saurabh Upadhyay   8 years AGO

Population after n years = 352800(1 + 5/100)^2
Population before n years = 352800/(1 + 5/100)^2

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abhinav   8 years AGO

after 2 yrs = 1.05*1.05*352800= 388962
x*1.05*1.05=352800 == x=320000

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Divya   8 years AGO

the population is compounded annually @ 5%
so population after 2 years will be

352800(1+5/100)^2=388962

8 is the only option with answer

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Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

Population after 2 years = 352800[1+(5/100)]^2
= 882 * 441
= 388962
Population 2 years ago = 352800/[1+(5/100)]^2
= 320000

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Manish   8 years AGO

two years later population(352800*105*105)/100*100=388962
two years ago=(352800*95*95)/100*100 =320000

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shivani shukla   8 years AGO

2 year hence population is
p*((1+r/100)^n)
p=352800,r=5,n=2
352800*((1+5/100)^2)=388962
2 year ago
p/((1+r/100)^n)
352800/((1+5/100)^2)
=320000

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SUSANTA KUMAR DAS   8 years AGO

352800×(105/100)×(105/100)=388962( For 2 years hence)
352800×(95/100)×(95/100)=320000(For 2 years ago)

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08 Sep 2016 Sum

What will be the value of sum of doublets formed by taking 2 integers from 1 to 10 at a time.

OPtion

1) 960
2) 1440
3) 1180
4) 385
5) 3025
6) 2640
7) 1320
8) 1060
9) 1655
10)1435

Solution

(1+2+3+ . . . . +10)2 = 12+22+32+ . . ....+102 + 2(sum of doublets)
Or 3025 = 385 + 2 (Sum of doublets)
Or Sum of doublets = (3025 - 385) / 2 = 1320

2nd
Sum = 1*( 2+3+....10) + 2* ( 3+4+5+..+10) + 3 * ( 4+5+...+10)+4( 5+6+..+10) +5* (6+7+..+10) +6(7+8+(+10) +7( 8+9+10) +8*(9+10) +9*10
= 54+ 2*52+3*49+4*45+5*40+6*34+7*27+8*19+ 90
= 1320

Option 7)

Correct Option: 7 Best Solution (5)

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

Let the sum of doublets be x
(1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8+9+10)² = (1²+2²+3²+4²+5²+6²+7²+8²+9²+10²) + 2*x
=> 55² = 385 + 2*x
=> 3025 = 385 + 2*x
=> 2640 = 2*x
=> x = 1320
Sum of doublets is 1320

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Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

Sum of numbers from 1 to 10 is 55.
So we will take 2 integers at a time and add all until 10 come.
final Sum=1*(55-1)+2*(54-2)+3*49+4*45+5*40+6*34+7*27+8*19+9*10
=54+104+147+180+200+204+189+152+90
=1320 Ans
Hence option (7) is the right answer.

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sachchida nand singh   8 years AGO

1*(55-1) + 2*( 54-2)+3( 52-3) +4*(49-4)+ 5*(45-5) + 6*(40-6)+7*(34-7)+8*(27-8)+9*10
= 54+104+147+180+200+204+189+152+90= 1320

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RAKESH   8 years AGO

(1+2+3+..........+10)^2 = (1^2+2^2+3^2+ .......10^2)+ 2S
=> S = 55^2-55*7 / 2
= 55*24
=1320

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aakash singhal   8 years AGO

1*(55-1) + 2*( 54-2)+3( 52-3) +4*(49-4)+ 5*(45-5) + 6*(40-6)+7*(34-7)+8*(27-8)+9*10
= 54+104+147+180+200+204+189+152+90= 1320

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