M4maths Previous Puzzles

09 Mar 2016 Mathematical operation

(16, 8, 36), (28, 11, 48), (12, 7 ,32) are 3 set of integers according to some mathematical operations, a similar set based on the similar operations are

OPtion

1) (12, 6, 30)
2) (28, 7, 40)
3) (20, 10, 44)
4) (24, 8, 36)
5) (36, 13, 58)
6) (4, 5, 24)
7) (32, 10, 44)
8) (40, 14, 48)
9) (44, 16, 68)
10) (8, 6, 30)

Solution

Formula used to solve a set (a, b, c) is
b = [(a/4) + 4]
and
c = [b*4 + 4]

Option 6)

Correct Option: 6 Best Solution (6)

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

2nd number = 1st number/4 + 4
3rd number = 1st number + 20
or
3rd number = (2nd number+1)*4

(16,8,36)
=>16/4 + 4 = 8
=> 16+20 = 36
=>(8+1)*4 = 36

(28,11,48)
=>28/4 + 4 = 11
=> 28+20 = 48
=> (11+1)*4 = 48

(12,7,32)
=>12/4 + 4 = 7
=> 12+20 = 32
=> (7+1)*4 = 32

Similarly,

(4,5,24)
=>4/4 + 4 = 5
=> 4+20 = 24
=> (5+1)*4 = 24

Option 6)

Like? Yes (6) | No (2)  

RAHUL KUMAR   8 years AGO

(16, 8, 36), (28, 11, 48), (12,7 ,32)

Formula used to solve a set
(a,b, c) is b = [(a/4) + 4] and
c = [b*4 + 4]
by solving this the answer is (4,5,24)
option (6) is answer.

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

In (16,8,36) the mathematical operation used is
8=(16/4)+4 and 36=(8*4)+4
Similarly,in (28,11,48) and (12,7,32) the following mathematical operation is used.
(p,q,r) in which q=(p/4) +4 and r=(q*4)+4
Now a similar set based on the similar operation is
(4,5,24) in which 5=(4/4)+4 and 24=(5*4)+4

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Kunal nemu   8 years AGO

Formula used to solved a set (a,b,c) is b =[(a/4) +4] and c=[(b*4) +4]
(16,8,36),(28,11,48),(12,7,32)
4*4 , 4+4 , 4*(4+5)
and similar others set
My answer is
6) (4,5,24)
4*1,4+1,4*(1+5)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Akshat Sood   8 years AGO

(a,b,c)=c-a=20 and c=b*4+4
Hence 24-4=20
And 24=5*4+4
(4,5,24)

Like? Yes | No (2)  

Joseph Madanu   8 years AGO

subtracting middle integer from both side integers will give different numbers .And again subtracting those two numbers we get an integer 20.
1.(16,8,36)
16-8=8 and 36-8=28
and 28-8=20
similarly remaining two sets.
so the answer satisfying this condition is 6.
(4,5,24)
4-5=-1 and 24-5=19 hence 19-(-1)=20.
Answer is 6.

Like? Yes | No (2)  

08 Mar 2016 Work and time

Two taps can separately fill a cistern in 10 min. and 15 min. respectively and when the waste pipe is open, they can together fill it in 18 min. The waste pipe can empty the full cistern in

OPtion

1) 7 min
2) 27 min
3) 9 min
4) 14 min
5) 13 min
6) 23 min
7) 12 in
8) 18 min
9) 21 min
10)15 min

Solution

Work done by waste pipe in 1 min
(1/10 + 1/15) - 1/18
10/90 = 1/9
Therefore
The waste pipe can empty the full cistern in 9 min.
Option 3)

Correct Option: 3 Best Solution (35)

Maneesh Gupta   8 years AGO

time taken by tap1=1/10
time taken by tap2=1/15
time taken to fill the cistren together=(1/10+1/15)
=1/6
waste pipe time=1/6-1/18
=1/9
9 min
option 3) 9 minutes

Like? Yes (9) | No (1)  

RITESH KUMAR JHA   8 years AGO

1/15+1/10+1/x=1/18
1/x=1/18-1/15-1/10
from here x=9
so, third pipe empty the full cistern in 9 min..

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

time taken by tap1=1/10
time taken by tap2=1/15
time taken to fill the cistren together=(1/10+1/15)
=1/6
waste pipe time=1/6-1/18
=1/9
9 min
option 3

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

MALLIDI PHANI MANOHARA REDDY   8 years AGO

let us take empty pipe can take x min...
Then 1/10+1/15-1/x=1/18=>x=9

Like? Yes (1) | No   

PAPAN SARKAR   8 years AGO

in 18 min both taps can fill 3 times the cistern , so waste pipe wipe out other 2 times cisterns water in 18 mins. so the ans is 18/2=9min

Like? Yes (1) | No   

ramarao   8 years AGO

both together fill in 6 min but takes 18 min due to leakage so it takes 9 min to empty the tank explanation in my Mobile is not easy

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Dasari sri Laxmi    8 years AGO

Total capacity of cistern is 90ltrs
1st can fill 9lit per min
2nd can fill 6lit per min
Both 1st, 2nd and 3rd can fill 5lit per min
Empty pipe consider as negative so
A+B-C=5lit/min
9lit/min+6lit/min-C=5lit/min
C=10lit/min
Total=90lit/(10lit/min)=9mints

Like? Yes (1) | No   

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

let the time taken by the waste pipe be X min.
Then,
1/10+1/15-1/x= 1/18
1/x= 2/18
x= 9 min
option 3)

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

THUMMALA VINEESHA   8 years AGO

3 rd pipe can fill it in
(1/18)-(1/10)-(1/15)= -(1/9)
- represents the emptying
so option 3 ) 9min

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

yugeswar reddy   8 years AGO

both can fill the cistern in 6min, i.e (1/10+1/15). now when three is on,
waste pipe+both on=1/18.
but waste pipe is negative since filling is considered +ve.
so waste pipe =1/6-1/18 =1/9
so 9min.

Like? Yes | No   

vipin pandey   8 years AGO

1st pipe will fill the tank in 1min=1/10
2nd pipe will fill the tank in 1 min=1/15
both pipe will fill the tank together in 1 min =1/10+1/15=5/30=1/6
when the waste pipe is open then time taken together in 1 min =1/18
So the waste pipe can empty the full cistern in = 1/6-1/18=1/9
so total 9 min will be require to empty the cistern

Like? Yes | No   

monika mehta   8 years AGO

1/15 + 1/10 - 1/x = 1/18
where x is the time taken by waste pipe to empty the container separately
by solving it ...
x = 9

Like? Yes | No   

Gaurab Kumar Jha   8 years AGO

both taps together fill the cisten in 10*15/(10+15) = 6 min
a/q 1/18-1/6 = 1/9
therfore in 9 min waste can empty the cisten

Like? Yes | No   

Umang Jain   8 years AGO

x/18 - (x/10 + x/15)
x/18 - (3x+2x/30)
x/18 - x/6
-x/9 = 9 min

Like? Yes | No   

Ranganath   8 years AGO

Waste pipe draws the water.So work done by waste pipe must be subtracted from work done by two taps.

Like? Yes | No   

Richa Saini   8 years AGO

Let total volume of cistern be 'V'
Tap1 fill it completely in = 10 min
=> Volume of water in filled 1 min = V/10

Tap2 fill it completely in = 15 min
=> Volume of water filled in 1 min = V/15

Time taken to fill cistern full by both taps together be 't'
We can write it as= Total volume of cistern/ volume of water filled in 1 min
=> t= V / ((V/10)+(V/15))
By solving, we get t= 6 min

Time taken to fill cistern when waste pipe is open = 18 min
As we know cistern is filled in 6 min by both taps together.
So, in 18 min,cistern is filled 3 times ie. 3V volume of water.
After 18 min when waste pipe is open,cistern is filled completly with 'V' volume which means '2V' volume got released by waste pipe.

So waste pipe release '2V' volume in = 18 min
'V' volume released in = 18/2= 9 min
=> Cistern with 'V' volume emptied by waste pipe in 9 mins

=> option(3) is the answer.

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Sudipa Chakraborty   8 years AGO

Let x be the time required by the waste pipe to empty the tank.
(1/10 +1/15)-1/x = 1/18
Or
1/6 -1/x = 1/18
Or
1/x = 1/6 -1/18
= 1/9
So, x=9 min

Like? Yes | No   

Shashank Rastogi   8 years AGO

bcoz
lcm of 10,15 and 18 is 90
then answer is 9.

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

deepak saroha   8 years AGO

combined speed of both taps=1/6 tanks/min
actual filling speed=1/18tanks/min
emptying speed=(1/6)-(1/18)=1/9tanks/min
therefore to empty full tank=9min

Like? Yes | No   

ARYA KRISHNAN G   8 years AGO

1/10 + 1/15 - 1/x = 1/18
(25/10*15) - 1/x = 1/18
1/6 - 1/x = 1/18
1/x = 1/18 - 1/6
1/x = 1/9
x = 9 min

Like? Yes | No   

S.MANJULA   8 years AGO

(1/10)+(1/15)-(1/c)=(1/18)
(1/6)-(1/c)=(1/18)
(1/c)=(1/9)
C=9 min

Like? Yes | No   

sanjeet kumar   8 years AGO

Work done = 1/10 +1/15 -1/x
or, 1/10 + 1/15 -1/x = 1/18
Therefore, x= 9 minutes

Like? Yes | No   

ruchika   8 years AGO

two pipe fill tank=1/6
two pipe + waste pipe=1/18
?1/6-1/8=1/9 I.e. 9 min

Like? Yes | No   

P.Triveni   8 years AGO

Part of tank emptied by waste pipe in 1 minute=(1/10)+(1/15)-(1/18)=(1/9)
So,waste pipe can empty the cistern in 9 minutes.

Like? Yes | No   

NICHERLA JAYANTHRAMAN   8 years AGO

time taken by 2taps to fill the tank=(1/10)+(1/15)=1/6. time time taken by waste pipe to empty the tank=(1/6)-(1/18)=1/9=9min

Like? Yes | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

If waste pipe can empty in 'x' minutes, then 1 min. filling=
(1/10) +(1/15) -(1/x)=1/18
x=9
Option 3)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

work done when two inlet and one outlet is=1/10+1/15-1/18=1/9
time required to empty the full tank=9min
option 3

Like? Yes | No (1)  

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

Time taken by waste pipe =1/18-1/10-1/15
=1/9
Time =9 minutes
Option 3

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Joseph Madanu   8 years AGO

together two taps fill the tank in 6mins((1/10)+(1/15)=1/6)
but they take 18min to fill with waste pipe
so ((1/6)-(1/x))=(1/18) ==>X=9mins

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Akshat Sood   8 years AGO

Total time to fill the cistern by both taps=1/10+1/15=1/6min
When waste pipe is open it takes 18 min for both taps to fill the cistern
Let time for waste pipe to empty the tank be x min
1/6+x=1/18
x=1/6-1/18=1/9=9min

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

Work done by waste pipe in 1 minute=(1/10 + 1/15)-1/18
=(1/6 - 1/18)=2/18=1/9
So,the waste pipe can empty the full cistern in 9 minutes

Like? Yes | No (1)  

prem   8 years AGO

If we combine the work of 2 taps and waste pipe,then we get an equation and from that equation we get the required answer.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

chanukya   8 years AGO

A takes 10 mins and B takes 15 mins
LCM is 30 and we can assume that 30 lits as tank capacity
means (3-2)x = 18
capacity is 18 lits
if we left Pipe B 18/2 = 9mins

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Jamil Ahmed   8 years AGO

Both taps together can fill the cistern in 1/(1/10+1/15) = 6 min.

So, waste pipe can empty the full cistern in 1/(1/6-1/18) = 9 min.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Anchal   8 years AGO

If we will add the two filling taps ans substract the total time

Time take to empty cistern = 1/10+1/15-1/18

Like? Yes | No (1)  

07 Mar 2016 Sequence

What is the next number of the following sequence
29, 40, 88, 312, .........

OPtion

1) 954
2) 1560
3) 1248
4) 1256
5) 868
6) 996
7) 1272
8) 1156
9) 1476
10)1596

Solution

29
29+11 = 40*1 = 40 (Previous number + previous number digit sum)
40 + 4 = 44*2 = 88
88 + 16 = 104*3 = 312
Similarly
312 + 6 = 318*4 = 1272
Option 7)

Correct Option: 7 Best Solution (17)

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

29*1+ (2+9)*1= 40
40*2 +(4+0)*2= 88
88*3 +(8+8)*3= 312
312*4 +(3+1+2)*4= 1272
Option 7)

Like? Yes (11) | No   

Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

(number+(sum of digits))×n=next number
where n ranges from 1 to n
(29+11)×1=40
(40+4)×2=88
(88+16)×3=312
(312+6)×4=1272

Like? Yes (3) | No   

Bablu patel   8 years AGO

sum of digits + number
what we gate will be multiplied by position of number
29
2+9+29=40*1=40

4+0+40=44*2=88

8+8+88=104*3=312

3+1+2+312=318*4=1272

this is the answer

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Rishu   8 years AGO

[29+(2+9)]*1=40
[40+(4+0)]*2=88
[88+(8+8)]*3=312
[312+(3+1+2)]*4=1272

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Maneesh Gupta   8 years AGO

(29+11)×1=40
(40+4)×2=88
(88+16)×3=312
(312+6)×4=1272
Hence the answer is option 7 :)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

mcamanjeet   8 years AGO

(9+2)+29=40*1=40
(4+0)+40=44*2=88
(8+8)+88=104*3=312
(3+2+1)+312=318*4=1272

Like? Yes | No   

RAHUL KUMAR   8 years AGO

29*1+ (2+9)*1= 40
40*2 +(4+0)*2= 88
88*3 +(8+8)*3= 312
312*4 +(3+1+2)*4= 1272
Option 7)

Like? Yes | No   

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

29
29*1+(2+9)*1=40
40*2+(4+0)*2=88
88*3+(8+8)*3=312
312*4+(3+1+2)*4=1272
Option =7

Like? Yes | No   

MAMTA KUMARI   8 years AGO

this series have pattern
(sum of digits +number)*postion of number
1------------( 2 + 9 + 29 ) * 1 = 40
2----------------( 4 + 0 + 40 ) * 2 = 88
3--------------( 8 + 8 + 88 ) * 3 = 312
4--------------( 3 + 1 + 2 + 312 ) * 4 = 1272
so next no. is 1272

Like? Yes | No   

Amit   8 years AGO

29-->29*1+(2+9)*1=40
40-->40*2+(4+0)*2=88
88-->88*3+(8+8)*3=312
312-->312*4+(3+1+2)*4=1272

Like? Yes | No   

rohit yadav   8 years AGO

29*1 +(2+9)*1+40

40*2 +(4+0)*2=88

88*3+ (8+8)*3=312

similarly,
312*4 + (3+2+1)*4 = 1272

Like? Yes | No   

~Sandeep~   8 years AGO

29+2+9=40*1=40
40+4+0=44*2=88
88+8+8=104*3=312
312+3+1+2=318*4=1272

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Sood   8 years AGO

29+(2+9)*1=40
40+(4+0)*2=88
Similarly 312+(3+1+2)*4=1272

Like? Yes | No   

TARUN CHAUHAN   8 years AGO

29*1+(2+9)*1=40
40*2+(4+0)*2=88
88*3+(8+8)*3=312

312*4+(3+1+2)*4=1272

Like? Yes | No   

Akrati Soni   8 years AGO

29*1+11
40*2+8
88*3+48
312*4+24

Like? Yes | No   

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

29+(2+9)=40,multiplied by 1=40
40+(4+0)=44,multiplied by 2=88
88+(8+8)=104,multiplied by 3=312
312+(3+1+2)=318,multiplied by 4=1272

Like? Yes | No (1)  

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

29*1+ (2+9)*1= 40
40*2 +(4+0)*2= 88
88*3 +(8+8)*3= 312
312*4 +(3+1+2)*4= 1272
Option 7)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

04 Mar 2016 Stock

At what price is 11/2 % stock quoted when Rs.11880 cash can bring an income of Rs.297 a year?

OPtion

1) Rs.140
2) Rs.160
3) Rs.240
4) Rs.230
5) Rs.190
6) Rs.150
7) Rs.210
8) Rs.130
9) Rs.220
10)Rs.110

Solution

For an income of Rs. 297,
cash required = Rs.11880
Therefore
For an income of Rs. 11/2, cash required = Rs.(11880/297 * 11/2)
= Rs.220

Option 9)

Correct Option: 9 Best Solution (2)

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

To earn Rs. 297, investment = Rs. 11880
To earn Rs 11/2 , investment =
( 11880/297*11/2) = Rs.220
so, market value of Rs 100 stock = Rs 220.
Option 9)

Like? Yes (15) | No   

Amit   8 years AGO

Assuming face value=100
11/2 per dividend
So investment needed=(11/2)*11880/297=220

Like? Yes (1) | No (3)  

03 Mar 2016 Five digit number

The sum of all digits of a 5 digit number is equal to the number of two digit formed by using the ten thousands and hundreds place digit in order. If five digit number has 1, 2, 3, & 4 and no digit is repeated in the number, then total number of possible number are

OPtion

1) 1
2) 6
3) 12
4) 24
5) 36
6) 120
7) 720
8) 1024
9) 1236
10)1500

Solution

Let us suppose that
fifth digit is x
then according to given condition
1+2+3+4+x = y
10+x = y
Since x is a single digit integer
& 0 =< x =< 9
10 =< y =< 19
& repetetion is not allowed
So Possible number are 12x34 where possible x are 0, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
Ten Thousands digit will necessarily be 1 & hundred x
so order 3 can be arranged in 3! = 6 ways
So possible numbers = 6*6 = 36
Option 5)

Correct Option: 5 Best Solution (10)

Aakash Beniwal   8 years AGO

ans is
Combination of
{'1',2,'0',3,4} .... 6 number
{'1',2,'5',3,4} .... 6 number
{'1',2,'6',3,4} .... 6 number
{'1',2,'7',3,4} ..... 6 number
{'1',2,'8',3,4} ...... 6 number
{'1',2,'9',3,4} .......6 number
so total 36 number

Like? Yes (3) | No (3)  

rayvadera meet    8 years AGO

Sum of 1,2,3,4 is 10. Fifth digit whatever we take sum of digits has last digit equals to fifth digit. Here thousands and hundreds digits should be fixed.So we can place other 3 digits anywhere. for each digit there is 3!=6 possibilities. we can't repeat any digit.therefore there is possibility of 0,5,6,7,8,9 as fifth digit. 6*6=36 possibilites should be the answer.

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

vaibhav tiwari   8 years AGO

Maximum sum of the digits can be 19..so ten thousand digit should be 1....unknown value will be taken by hundred digit no..
So...factorial 3 *6 ac hundred digit no. Can take only 0,5,6,7,8,9...digits arenit repeated

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Vaibhav Khedkar   8 years AGO

ten thousands place has to be 1 because sum cannot exceed 19
hundreths place will be filled in 6 ways(0,5,6,7,8,9)
the other three places will be filled in 3! ways
total ways = 3!*6=36
option(5)

Like? Yes | No (1)  

ravi   8 years AGO

the number would be 12_34. Intially the sum of the 4 digits is 10 so without repeating the possible numbers are 0,5-9 so the sum would be from 10-19. So by placing 0 in the _ we get 10=10 and with 5 we get 15=15 so on and the number of combinations for each insertion is 3! so for 6 it becomes 6*3!=36

Like? Yes | No (2)  

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

The possible numbers are
12543= that can be arranged in 6 ways
12643= that can be arranged in 6 ways

12743= that can be arranged in 6 ways

12843= that can be arranged in 6 ways

12943= that can be arranged in 6 ways

12043= that can be arranged in 6 ways

So in total 36 ways.
Option 5)

Like? Yes (1) | No (3)  

satish ojha   8 years AGO

a+b+c+d+e=10a+c
b+d+e=9a

if a=1 then b+d+e possible 6 case
if a=2. then b+d+e possible 30 case
if a=3,4,5,6,7,8,9 possible 0 case

Like? Yes | No (2)  

Dr.Dipin Singh   8 years AGO

Numbers can be 10XYZ, 15XYZ, 16XYZ, 17XYZ, 18XYZ, 19XYZ
where XYZ are having values 2,3,4 which can be arranged in six (6) ways.
so total possible numbers= 6*6=36... option 5

Like? Yes | No (2)  

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

The possible numbers are
12543= that can be arranged in 6 ways
12643= that can be arranged in 6 ways

12743= that can be arranged in 6 ways

12843= that can be arranged in 6 ways

12943= that can be arranged in 6 ways

12043= that can be arranged in 6 ways

So in total 36 ways.
Option 5)

Like? Yes | No (3)  

RAKESH   8 years AGO

at least post the question in proper language.

number ll be of form
1x*xx where, x = 2/3/4 & * = 0/5/6/7/8/9

3! * 6 = 36

Like? Yes (1) | No (4)  

02 Mar 2016 Time and work

Rupendra forms a wall in 10 days and Shailendra forms it in 15 days. Rependra and Shailendra start the work of forming wall together but after 2 days Rupendra leaves the work. How many days are required for making the remaining wall by Shailendra?

OPtion

1) 6
2) 9
3) 8
4) 10
5) 12
6) 15
7) 16
8) 20
9) 5
10)4

Solution

One day work of Rupendra = 1/10
One day work of Shailendra = 1/15
One day work of R and S = 1/10 + 1/15
= 1/6
After 2 days of work remaining work = 1- (2*1/6) = 4/6
No. of days required by S for doing this work = (4/6) / (1/15)
= 10

Correct Option: 4 Best Solution (48)

Richa Saini   8 years AGO

Rupendra complete work in 10 days.
=>work done in one day by R = 1/10
Similarly, Shailendra complete work in = 15 days
=>workdone in one day by S = 1/15

Let No of extra days shailendra works= x
Total work can be written as :
work done by both in 2 days + work done by shailendra in x days
let total work be 1.
Therefore,
2(1/10 + 1/15) + (1/15)*x = 1
2(5/30) + (1/15)*x = 1
By solving this we get x= 10
=> option (4) is the answer.

Like? Yes (4) | No   

himanshu   8 years AGO

let total work done=30 units
rupendra takes 10 days to complete,so 1 day work of him=30/10=3units
shailendra takes 15 days so 1 day work of him=30/15=2units
if they work together for 2 days there work=(2units+3units)*2=10 units
left work=30-10=20 units
which will be completed by shailendra=20/2=10 days

Like? Yes (1) | No   

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

Rupendra & shailerndra 2 days work=2(1/10+1/15)
=1/3
Now remains work =1-1/3=2/3
Time taken by shalindra=2/3(15)=10
Option 4

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Rizul   8 years AGO

time taken by both to complete the work = 1/(1/10+1/15)= 6 days
work done in 1 day= 1/6
work done in 2 days= 2/6
remaining work= 4/6
shailendra's 1 day work= 1/15
so 4/6 of work will be completed by him in 10 days.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

satish ojha   8 years AGO

rupendra =10
shailendra =15
LCM =30
rupendra efficiency = 3
shailendra efficiency =2

2 day do =(3+2)*2=10 work
remaining work =30-10=20

shailendra do remaining work =20/2=10 days

Like? Yes | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

rupendra and shailendra 1 day work =1/15+1/10=5/30=1/6
workdone in 2 days=1/6*2=1/3
remaining work=1-1/3=2/3
time to complete the remaining work by shailendra=2/3/1/15=10 days
option 4

Like? Yes | No   

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

Rupendra and shailendra 1 day work= 1/10+1/15= 5/30= 1/6
Work done by the two in 2 days = 1/6*2= 1/3
Work left of shailedra = 1-1/3= 2/3
So, time taken by shailendra is 2/3*15= 10 days.
Option 4)

Like? Yes | No   

RISHABH   8 years AGO

Let the total working unit be 30 units.
So, Rupendra 1 day work = 3 units
And, Shailendra 1 day work = 2 units
So,together they can work in 1 day = 5 units
So, 2 days work = 10 units
Now, 20 units of work and Shailendra does 2 unit/day
So, total no. of days required for remaining wall to be completed = 20/2= 10 days

Like? Yes | No   

N VARUN TEJA   8 years AGO

Rate of rupendra's work=1/10
Rate of shailendra's work=1/15
Together work=1/10 1/15=1/6
They work for 2 days,so work done is (1/6)*2=1/3
Remaining work=1-1/3=2/3
Work done by shailendra=(2/3)/(1/15)=10

Like? Yes | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

After 2 days of work of Rupendra & Shailendra, if Shailendra requires another 'x' days to complete the wall, then 2[(1/10) + (1/15)]+(x/15)=1
On solving x=10
Option 4)

Like? Yes | No   

mcamanjeet   8 years AGO

total work in two days =2*(1/15+1/10)
=1/3
remaining work =1-1/3
=2/3
shailendra complete 1 work in 15 days
therefore 2/3 15*2/3
=10 days

Like? Yes | No   

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

Let x days are required for making the remaining wall by shailendra.
Now,(2/10)+{(2+x)/15}=1
x=20/2
x=10 days

Like? Yes | No   

MADHUBABU   8 years AGO

2(1/10 + 1/15) +x/15 = 1
5/15 + x/15 = 1
5+x = 15
x= 10 days

Like? Yes | No   

ve   8 years AGO

work done by rupendra is 0.1 in one day and by shailendra is 0.067 so work done by bith in two days is 0.334 remeaining work is 0.667 so it will take shailendra 10 more days.

Like? Yes | No   

THUMMALA VINEESHA   8 years AGO

r's 1 day's work is 1/10
s's 1 day's work is 1/15
both 1 day's wrk=1/6
for 2 days=1/3
rem wrk 2/3
2/3 wrk by s in (2/3)*15=10 days
option 4

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Sood   8 years AGO

Let Work be 300 units
Rupendra will do 30 units in 1 day and Shalinder will do 20 units in 1 day
As Rupendra leaves after 2 days
On those 2 days 100 units of work is completed
Shalinder will do the remaining work in 300-100/20=10 days

Like? Yes | No   

Testing Account   8 years AGO

rupendra had done 20% work before leave and about 13% work had been done by shailendra in these 2 days..total work done 33% in 2 days....67% work still to do.....though shailendra does 1/15=6.6% in one day ...remaining work must b completed in more 10 days.

Like? Yes | No   

dev   8 years AGO

rupendra in 10 days do 1 work
" " 1 day do 1/10 work

Sailendra in 15 days do 1 work
" " 1 day do 1/15 work

in 1 day they both will do (1/10) + (1/15)
in 2 days they will do (2/10 ) + (2/15) = ( 1 / 3 ) of work
work remaining = 1 - (1/3 ) = 2/3

so rupendra leaves and
sailendra completes 1 work in 15 days
" " 2/3 " in 2/3 * 15 =10 days

Like? Yes | No   

ENABOTHULA MOUNIKA   8 years AGO

Rupendra can complete 1/10th portion of work per 1 day
Shailendra can complete 1/15th portion of work per 1 day
Both togther can complete the work in 10*15/(10+15)=6 days
So for 2 days both will complete 1/3rd portion of work.
Remaining 2/3rd portion of work should be completed by shailendra.
As Shailendra can complete 1/15 th portion of work per day.
then to complete 2/3 rd portion of work he takes X days
X=2/3*15
X=10 days

Like? Yes | No   

Saurabh Bajaj   8 years AGO

work done by Rupendra and Shailendra together = 2(1/10 + 1/15) = 1/3
work to be done after 2 days = 1 - 1/3 = 2/3
time taken by Shailendra to complete 2/3 work = (2/3)/(1/15)
= 10
Option 4

Like? Yes | No   

U Gowthami   8 years AGO

Rupendra's 1 day work=1/10
Shailendra's 1 day work=1/15
(Rupendra+Shailendra)'s 1 day work=1/6
2 days they are worked together so 2*1/6=1/3
remaining work=1-1/3=2/3 by Shailendra
days=(2/3)*(15/1)=10days

Like? Yes | No   

Amit   8 years AGO

word done in 2 days (1/10+1/15)*2
n/15=2/3
so n=10

Like? Yes | No   

Kunal nemu   8 years AGO

let total work 1
rupendra forms wall 1/10 in 1 day and shailendra forms 1/15 in 1 day..
after 2 days rupendra forms 2/10 and shailendra forms 2/15
total work 2/10+2/15=1/3
due to work 1- 1/3=2/3
so shailendra forms walls of 2/3 in 2/3 / 1/15=10days

Like? Yes | No   

manikanth   8 years AGO

1day both completes 5units of work
2days 10units
30-10=20
20/2=10

Like? Yes | No   

Patel Mitul P   8 years AGO

The total time that'll be consume if both works together will be:
1/10 + 1/15 = 1/6
for two days they work together
(1/6)*2 = 1/3
for the rest by Rupendra
x/15
total time consumed will be
1/3 + x/15 = 1 (Because total work = 1)
By solving above equation
x=10

Like? Yes | No   

reshma d asnani   8 years AGO

Shailendra requires 15 days and rupendra requires 10 days. So shailendra requires 1.5 time then rupendra to complete the same task. when they started together and after 2 day rupendra left. Rupendra did the work in 2 day that could be done in 3 days by shailendra. So 12 day requires to complete the work. And with this 2 day shailendra also did the work.. So the time require to complete the remaining work is 10 days

Like? Yes | No   

Akrati Soni   8 years AGO

10-2 =8
15-2=13
4/5-2/15
=10/15
2/3*15
=10

Like? Yes | No   

Pankaj Sonawane   8 years AGO

take LCM of 10 & 15
it will be 30
so rupendra and shailendra does 3 and 2 unit in one day
so in 2 days their work done is 10 unit
so remainig 20 unit workdone will be finished in 10 days

Like? Yes | No   

srija bomma   8 years AGO

rupendra's 1 day work=1/10
shailendra's 1 day work=1/15
both work in 1 day=1/10+1/15
=1/6
both work in 2 days=1/3
remaining work =2/3
shailendra can do full work in 15 days
2/3 part of work in 'x'days
x=15*2/3
=10 days

Like? Yes | No   

Jamil Ahmed   8 years AGO

Both working together, the wall will be completed in 1/(1/10+1/15) = 6 days.
So, in 2 days 1/3rd of the wall would be built and 2/3rd of the wall shall be built by Shailendra alone in 15*2/3 = 10 days.

Like? Yes | No   

ganesh   8 years AGO

rupendra one day work=1/10
sailaendra one day work =1/15
2 days work=2/10+2/15
2/10+2/15+x/15=1
10 days

Like? Yes | No   

anju sukumaran   8 years AGO

total days to complete the work = LCM OF 10,15 = 30
RUPENDRA =3
SAILENDRA = 2
WORKONG HORS FOR ON DAY 3+2= 5
FOR 2 DAY THEY COMPLETE 10
REMAINING WORK 30-(5+5)=20
days required for sailendra to complete the remaining wall = 20/2= 10 days

Like? Yes | No   

rahul   8 years AGO

LET work be 30 part (lcm of 10 and 30)
rupendra 1 day work=3part
shailendra 1 day work =2part
they worked for 2 2 days therefore works done in 2 days =(2*2)+(2*3)=10 part
work left=20 which will be completed by shailendra in 20/2 =10 days

Like? Yes | No   

ashu   8 years AGO

r+s=25/150=1/6
2 day 's work of both=1/3
remainning work=1-1/3=2/3
this work iis done by shailendra so=2/3*15= 10 days

Like? Yes | No   

Kaushal   8 years AGO

The answer is 10.
R and S and do 1/6 work in one day together.....
In 2 days they would have done...2*1/6 = 1/3 work...
Hence, remaining work is 2/3
and hence, S shall take 10 days to build the remaining wall...

Like? Yes | No   

ravi   8 years AGO

Rupendra(R) one day work is 1/10
Shilendra(S) one day work is 1/15
Both (R+S)one day work is 1/10+1/15=1/6
Both two days work is 1/3
remaining work is 2/3
For S to complete (2/3)/(1/15)=10.

Like? Yes | No   

shaik salma sultana   8 years AGO

In one day Rupendra completes 1/10 th of work
In one day shailenrda completes 1/15th of work
one day work of both Rupendra and sailendra is 1/10 + 1/15 =1/6
now they work together for 2 days so 2*1/6=1/3 rd of work is complete and rupendra leav and remaining is 2/3 rdof work which must be done by sailendra
for 1/15th of work its 1 day
then for 2/3rd of work=?
1*2/3*15=10 days

Like? Yes | No   

Saleel Kulkarni   8 years AGO

Rupendra in 1 day covers 1/10 unit of work and Shailendra covers 1/15 unit of work.
If they both work for two days they cover2*(1/10 + 1/15)=1/3 unit of work.
For 1 unit of Shailendra take 15 days then for remaining 2/3 unit of work he will take = (15*2)/3 = 10 days
option 4

Like? Yes | No   

Gaurav Upadhyay   8 years AGO

ratio of efficiency of rupendra and shailendra is in ratio of 3:2

Like? Yes | No   

dinesh kumar   8 years AGO

the total work done is 30 part.one day work of both of them will be 5 part. if first two days both would work. 10 get over.r balance is 20 which is done by another person in 10 days

Like? Yes | No   

haritha   8 years AGO

efficiency Totalwork
rupendra--10 | 3 | 30
shailendra--15 | 2 |
total efficiency =3+2
=5
both can do a work of 10 in two days.
This can be found by using the formula work=efficiency*no.of days
= 5*2
=10
so remaining work is 30-10=20
Shailendra can do this work in
=remaining work/efficiency of shailendra
=20/2
=10

Like? Yes | No   

Vaibhav Khedkar   8 years AGO

rupendra's one day work=1/10
shailendra's one day work=1/15
(rupendra+shailendra)'s 2 day work=2(1/10+1/15)=1/3
work remaining=2/3
shailendra will take 10 days to complete the work
(1/15)*10=2/3
option (4)

Like? Yes | No   

Arya Jayanand   8 years AGO

Work done by Rupendra in one day = 1/10
Work done by Shailendra in one day = 1/15
So work done together in one day = 1/10+1/15
= 1/6
For two days they work together.
Work done for two days = 1/6+1/6
= 1/3
So remaining work = 1-(1/3)
= 2/3
So 2/3 part of is to be completed by Shailendra.Let no.of days taken be x.
Therefore 1/15x=2/3
x=10
So Shailendra needs 10 DAYS to complete the work.

Like? Yes | No   

mutthu   8 years AGO

R-10,S-15: LCM of 10&15 is 30 units
R-can do 3 units in one day & S can do in 2 units in one day. R+S=5units
two days worked together so 5×2=10units so remaining 20 units R alone 20Units in 10 days So answer is 10

Like? Yes | No   

Satyajit Mandal   8 years AGO

rupendra does full work in 10 days
in 1 days 1/10 amount work
in 2 days 2/10 amount work
& shailendra does full work in 15 days
in 1 days 1/15 amount work
in 2 days 2/15 amount work
so both in 2 days (2/10+2/15)=1/3 amount work
remaining 2/3 amount work
shailendra does the remaining work in 15*2/3 days=10 days.

Like? Yes | No   

harsha Shende   8 years AGO

Both will take 6 days
After 2 dayone leave
So time will be less than 6

Like? Yes | No   

sumit kumar   8 years AGO

both together can make 1/10+1/15=1/6
in 2 days total work =1/6*2=1/3
rest work is =1-1/3=2/3
so shailendra will do it in 2/3*15=10 days.
option 4

Like? Yes | No   

Kaustubh Sarmah   8 years AGO

total work done by then in 2 days= 1/3
Remaining work= 2/3
So if Shailendra does 1/15 of work in = 1 day
Then 2/3 work will be done in =10 days

Like? Yes | No   

01 Mar 2016 Airtel net package

If 336 rupee is the charge of a Airtel Net package in the month of June then its charge for month of July is?

OPtion

1) 342
2) 347.20
3) 348.30
4) 337
5) 330
6) 338.50
7) 343
8) 342.60
9) 350
10)345.20

Solution

June is a month of 30 days and july is that of 31 days
Hence charge is 336*31/30 = 347.20

Correct Option: 2 Best Solution (38)

mcamanjeet   8 years AGO

june is 30 days month
and july is 31 days month
charge for june 30 days is 336
hence charge for 1 day=336/30
charge for 31 day of july is =336*31/30
=347.2 rs

Like? Yes (5) | No   

Richa Saini   8 years AGO

For June it is= 336
June has 30 days
Therefore,cost for one day=336/30=11.2

July has 31 days
=>Cost for July = 11.2*31
= 347.2
=> option(2) is the answer.

Like? Yes (3) | No   

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

June has 30 days.
so, 1 day cost of net pack is 336/30= 11.2
July has 31 days, so net pack cost is 31*11.2= 347.2
Option 2)

Like? Yes (3) | No (2)  

satish ojha   8 years AGO

in 30 days june = 336 rs
1 days charge of net =11.2rs
31 july month charge of net =11.2* 31=347.2 rs

Like? Yes | No   

Saurabh Bajaj   8 years AGO

336 for 30 days
x for 31 days
x = (336 x 31)/30 = 347.2

Like? Yes | No   

Elamaruthu   8 years AGO

jun 30 days = 336/30-->11.2 per day
july 31 days=>11.2*31=347.20

Like? Yes | No   

Bablu patel   8 years AGO

june have -----30 days
30 day charge--------336
july is month of ------31days
31 days charges---------31*336/30
=347.2

Like? Yes | No   

MUKESH KUMAR   8 years AGO

for june i.e for 30 days it is 336 ruppes
for 1 days 336/30 ruppes
for july i.e 336*31/30= 347.5

Like? Yes | No   

ve   8 years AGO

Charge of one day=336/30=11.2 as june has 30 days
So charge of july with 31 days is 11.2*31=347.2

Like? Yes | No   

RISHABH   8 years AGO

June has 30 days. So, charge of 1 day=336/30=11.2
And July has 31 days. So,31*11.2=347.2

Like? Yes | No   

MAMTA KUMARI   8 years AGO

june is the month 30 days
it means 30 day charge is 336
then one day charge is ------336/30
=11.2
july is month of 31
so charges for 31 days is = 31*11.2
=347.2 rupees

Like? Yes | No   

Akhil Kumar Arshid   8 years AGO

june has 30 days
per each day it costs 11.2 rs
and july has 31 days => 31*11.2
=> 347.2

Like? Yes | No   

JEGATHA.H   8 years AGO

for the month june 30 days=336 rs
then for 1 day= 336/30
for july 31 days=336/30*31
= 347.20

Like? Yes | No   

abhi   8 years AGO

june has 30 days and july has 31 days
so,11.20rs/day
then in july it cost is 336+11.2=347.2

Like? Yes | No   

DEBALINA BHATTACHARYYA   8 years AGO

June= 30 days. charge = 336 rupee.
For 1 days charge=336/30=11.2 rupee.
July =31 days.
So for July charge=(31*11.2) = 347.20 rupee.

Like? Yes | No   

anju sukumaran   8 years AGO

june no. of days = 30
30 days = 336
for one day = 336/30 = 11.2
july contain 31 days
so charge of package for 31 days = 31 x 11.2 = 347.20
so ans. option 2

Like? Yes | No   

Ankita   8 years AGO

For 30 days bill amount is Rs.336
1.e for 1 day bill amount is Rs.11.2/-
However, for 31 days i.e. July bill amount would be Rs347.2/-

Like? Yes | No   

GOURANGA SUNDAR MANDAL   8 years AGO

june month is 30 days..and july 31 daye..
so 30 days net charge is 336
then 31 days net charge is (336/30)*31=347.20
so option 2 is correct answer

Like? Yes | No   

aditya   8 years AGO

june 30days,july 31 days
1day charge 336/30
therefore 31 days charge
(336/30)*31=347.20

Like? Yes | No   

Ravikumar   8 years AGO

June have 30 days so for each day the distribution of money is rs 11 .2. July have 31 days then 11.2x31 gives 347.2 so answer is 2

Like? Yes | No   

chaitanya   8 years AGO

30 DAYS IN JUNE COSTS 336
SO 31 DAYS JULY COSTS (336)*(31/30)=347.199999

Like? Yes | No   

kodati arun Kumar   8 years AGO

(june=30days) if for 30days it costs 336rupees.
then (july=31days) for 31days it costs 347.2rupees
i.e...,31*336/30=347.2

Like? Yes | No   

Aruna   8 years AGO

In the month of June there are 30 days so 336/30=11.2
and for July there is 31 days and so the amount is 31*11.2=347.20

Like? Yes | No   

purimitla venkatrao   8 years AGO

airtel net balence required in July is
=336*31/30
=347.20

Like? Yes | No   

Palpandi    8 years AGO

June has 30 days 11.2 rupee per day
July has 31 days 11.2 rupee per day
So
31*11.2=347.20

Like? Yes | No   

Ankit   8 years AGO

in june month 30 days but in july 31 days
1 days .=11.20rs

Like? Yes | No   

Srijan Deb   8 years AGO

336*31/30= 347.2 ..as we all know june contains 30 days and july has 31

Like? Yes | No   

Krishnarjun Ghosh   8 years AGO

total net package is 336rs of june..june month has 30 days. so 336/30=11.2= per day net package..july month is of 31 days.so net package of july=31*11.2=347.2

Like? Yes | No   

Surabhi Yadav   8 years AGO

June=30days
30days=336/-
1day=11.2/-
July=31days
tptal amount=11.2*31=347.20/-

Like? Yes | No   

Madhab Das   8 years AGO

june month is of 30 days and july is of 31 days so 336/30=11.2 and then 11.2*31=347.20

Like? Yes | No   

hitesh sharma   8 years AGO

beacause the cost of one day is rs 11.20
then multiply it with 31 u get 347.20

Like? Yes | No   

ayushi   8 years AGO

30 days charge=336
so 1 day charge=336/30=11.20
so charge of july will be 336+11.20=347.20

Like? Yes | No   

liya   8 years AGO

per day 336/30=11.2 june is 30 days and july is 31 so one extra day now per 30 days 336 per 31 days 336+11.2=347.20

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Mokashi   8 years AGO

In June there are 30 days. so charge for 1 day is 336/30=11.2
now in july there are 31 days so 31*11.2=347.20 is the charge.

Like? Yes | No   

Meenakshi   8 years AGO

Let x be the rate per day
For June month,
x*30=336
by solving this x=11.2
For July month,total days=31
then x*31=11.2*31=347.20
Option 2)

Like? Yes | No   

Aamir Akhtar   8 years AGO

charge of net pack for 30 days = 336
so charge for 1 day = 336/30 = 11.2
so charge for july month = 31*11.2=347.2

Like? Yes | No   

dev   8 years AGO

for 30 days net card recharge = 336
for 1 day net card recharge = 336/ 30 = 11.2
for July (31 days) net card recharge = 11.2 * 31 = 347 .20

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Sood   8 years AGO

No of days of month of June =30 days
Charge per day =336/30=11.20rupee
No of days in July=31 days
Charge=31*11.2=rupee347.20

Like? Yes | No (1)  

29 Feb 2016 Number

(1+3+5+7+...........+3983) / 1992 is equal to

OPtion

1) 1993
2) 1990
3) 1989
4) 1996
5) 1997
6) 1992
7) 1998
8) 1979
9) 1978
10)1986

Solution

Let the number of tern in 1+3+5+.....+3983 be n
Then
1+(n-1)*2 = 3983
n = 1992
Therefore
1+3+5+....3983 = 1992/2 * (1+3983) = 1992*1992
1992
Option 6)

Correct Option: 6 Best Solution (71)

Richa Saini   8 years AGO

Equation: (1+3+5+7+......+3983)/1992
As 1 3 5 7..... 3983 are in AP series.
Therefore ,Sum of AP series = (first term +last term) * number of terms/2

Number of terms= no of odd numbers from 1 to 3983
ie: 1992 (half of total numbers)
=>Sum=(1+3983)*1992/2
=>1992*1992

Then puting this in above equation-
(1992*1992)/1992
=> 1992
Therefore, option(6) is the answer.

Like? Yes (8) | No   

MUKESH KUMAR   8 years AGO

1+3+5.....3983 is in A.P with d value=2
so a+(n-1)d=3983
(n-1)2=3983-1
n-1=1991
n=1992
we know that sum of first n odd digits= n^2
so 1992*1992/1992=1992

Like? Yes (4) | No   

Yashi Das   8 years AGO

Number of odd no.s from 1 to 3983 is 1992
therefore,((1992/2)(1+3983))/1992
=3984/2 =1992

Like? Yes (3) | No   

satish ojha   8 years AGO

1,3,5.........3983.. is ap .
so no of terms
Sn=a+(n-1)d

3983=1+(n-1)2
3984=2n
n=1992
sum =1992(1+3983)/1992*2= 3984/2=1992

Like? Yes (2) | No   

RAKESH   8 years AGO

n = (3983+1)/2 = 1992
(1+3+5+7+...........+3983) / 1992
= 1992^2 / 1992
= 1992

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

(1+3+5+...........+3983)/1992
from series
tn=a+(n-1)d
3983=1+(n-1)*2
after solving we get n=1992
then sum=1992/2*(1+3983)
=1992^2
from question
1992^2/1992=1992
option 6

Like? Yes | No   

RAHUL KUMAR   8 years AGO

Given series in an A.P in
which a=1,d=(3-1)=2,l=3983
let the no of terms in it be
n.then
nth term=a+(n-1)d
1+(n-1)2=3983
n=1992
required sum=n/2(a
+l)=1992/2(1+3983)=1992x1992
ans will be
1992x1992/1992=1992
option (6) is r8

Like? Yes | No   

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

(1+3+5+7+.....3982) is in AP with a=1,d=2 and l=3983
Now, number of terms,n=(1+3983)/2=1992
Sum of AP=(n/2)*(a+l)=(1992/2)*(1+3983)=(1992/2)*3984
Answer=(1992*3984)/(2*1992)=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

If 'n' are the number of terms in the series, then
1+(n-1)*2=3983, n=1992
So sum of these terms/1992=(1992/2)[2*1+(1992-1)*2]/1992 =(1/2)(2+3982)=1992
Option 6)

Like? Yes | No   

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

Let the number of terms in 1 + 3 + 5 + ... + 3983 be n
Then 1 + (n ? 1) × 2 = 3983 ? n = 1992
? 1 + 3 + 5 + ... + 3983 =
1992
2
× (1+ 3983) = 1992 x 1992.
?
1+3+5+7... +3983/1992= 1992*1992/1992
=1992 ...
option 6)

Like? Yes | No   

Saurabh Bajaj   8 years AGO

No. of terms = 3983/2 = 1991.5 = 1992
Sum of first n odd terms = n2
In this case, 1992*1992/1992 = 1992

Like? Yes | No   

Amit   8 years AGO

Number of terms=1992
Sum=1992/2(2*1+1991*2)=1992*1992
So ans=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Bablu patel   8 years AGO

2n=3983+2-1
n=1992
sum=(1+3983)*1992/2*1992
1992

Like? Yes | No   

mcamanjeet   8 years AGO

common.difference=2
sum=n/2*(first term+last term)=n/2*(a+l)
=1992*(1+3983)/2
A/c
=(1992*3984)/1992*2
=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Sagar Jinachandran   8 years AGO

Sum of odd numbers till 3983 =3968064
3968064/1992=1992
Option 6

Like? Yes | No   

sugayathri   8 years AGO

1+3=4, 2^2
1+3+5=9, 3^2

1+3+5+7=16, 4^2
1+3+.............+3983

a=1
d=2
l=3983
l=a+(n-1)d
3983=2n-1
n=1992
n^2
1992^2

=1992^2/1992
=1992

Like? Yes | No   

MAMTA KUMARI   8 years AGO

SUM=n*(A+L)/2*1992
=(1+3983)
=3984/2
=1992
n=1992
sum=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Dheeraj kumar prajapati   8 years AGO

tn=a1+(n-1)d => n = 1992
s = n/2(2a + (n-1)d) = 1992

Like? Yes | No   

Maneesh Gupta   8 years AGO

Given series in an A.P in which a=1,d=(3-1)=2,l=3983
let the no of terms in it be n.then
nth term=a+(n-1)d
1+(n-1)2=3983
n=1992
required sum=n/2(a+l)=1992/2(1+3983)=1992x1992
ans will be 1992x1992/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

Given series in an A.P in which a=1,d=(3-1)=2,l=3983
let the no of terms in it be n.then
nth term=a+(n-1)d
1+(n-1)2=3983
n=1992
required sum=n/2(a+l)=1992/2(1+3983)=1992x1992
ans will be 1992x1992/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

ravi   8 years AGO

sum of n odd numbers is n^2. so find the number of odd numbers. using A.P 3983=1+(n-1)2
==> n=1992
==> n^2/1992=1992.

Like? Yes | No   

Akshay Nivrutti Raskar   8 years AGO

Addition of n consecutive odd numbers = n * n
Addition of (3984/2 = 1992) odd numbers = 1992 * 1992

Required ans = 1992 * 1992 /1992 = 1992

Like? Yes | No   

YUGANDHARA RAO    8 years AGO

By using the formula for Sum of "n" odd numbers as n^2.
We will get n=1992 as n=(3983+1)/2=1992.
now n^2=1992*1992 so ans is 1992 means option 6.

Like? Yes | No   

THUMMALA VINEESHA   8 years AGO

1992
using formulaa of ap
1992[(1+3983)/2]*(1/1992)=1992

Like? Yes | No   

saitejapinky   8 years AGO

sum of first n odd numbers is
1+3+5+7+..........(2n-1) is n*n.
They given that 2n-1=3983
2n=3984
n=1992
1+3+5+.......3983=n*n
=1992*1992
but they given that (1+3+5+.......3983)/1992=(1992*1992)/1992
=1992.

Like? Yes | No   

Saravanakumar   8 years AGO

total numbers in the serious is 1992. addition of odd numbers = n^2 so 1992*1992/1992 =1992

Like? Yes | No   

Aamir Akhtar   8 years AGO

it is a arithmatic progression .. let n is the no of terms in this A.P.
nth term of A. P. = a + (n - 1)d = 3983
n = 1992
now sum of n terms of A. P. = n/ 2( 2a + ( n - 1 )d)
sum = 1992* 1992
so sum / 1992 = 1992
Ans = 1992

Like? Yes | No   

Jagapathi   8 years AGO

sum of n terms in a.p= n/2(a+l)
n=1992 a=1 l=3983
1992/2(3984)=1992*1992
1992*1992/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

neelesh   8 years AGO

for finding n use a+(n-1)d and for sum use n(first+last term)/2

Like? Yes | No   

PODETI SRINIVAS GOUD   8 years AGO

consider numerator 1+3+5+7+.......+3983
these are in arithmetic progression
where a(first term=a1)=1,d=a2-a1=3-1=2
nth term(sn)=a+(n-1)d=1+(n-1)2=2n-1
but given nth trem is 3983
2n-1=3983
2n=3984
n=1992
sum of 2 odd terms=1+3=4=2^2
sum of 3 odd tems=1+3+5=9=3^2
sum of 4 odd terms=1+3+5+7=16=4^2
.............................................................................
n tems sum of odd tems is n^2
here n=1992
n^2=1992^2
given eqn is
(1+3+5+7+............3983)/1992=1992^2/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Jamil Ahmed   8 years AGO

Here no. of terms = (3983-1)/2 + 1 = 1992

Therefore, sum of all terms i.e. 1+3+5+7+.........+3983 = 1992/2*{2*1 + (1992-1)*2} = 1992*1992.

So, the answer is 1992*1992/1992 = 1992

Like? Yes | No   

suryakant singh   8 years AGO

total number of term is 1992,
sum of numbers is 1992/2(2+1991*2) = 1992/2(3984)
= 1992*1992
A/Q,(1992*1992)/1992 = 1992

Like? Yes | No   

sadhana   8 years AGO

sum of n odd numbers
1+3+5+.....+(2n-1)=n*n
so in the question
1+3+5+7+....(2(1992)-1)=1992*1992
so the ans....1992

Like? Yes | No   

UMANG RASTOGI   8 years AGO

by formula Sn = n/2(a+l) = n/2{2a+(n-1)d}
we get n=1992

so Sn/1992 =c 1992/2(1+3983) /1992 = 1992 ANS.

Like? Yes | No   

Jebas Gnana Prakash E   8 years AGO

Add 1 to the last no we get
3983+1=3984
Divide by 2 we get
3984/2=1992 //assume equation 1
Take
1992*1992=3968064
3968064/1992=1992 assume equation 2
Let
equation 1= equation2
hence ans is 1992

Like? Yes | No   

Mathi Vanan P   8 years AGO

add the last number with one =>(3983+1)=3984
divide the resultant value by 2=>(3984/2)=1992
square the resultant value=>(1992*1992)=3968064
in the question divide by 1992 is there therefore the resultant value is divided 1992 then
(3968064/1992)=1992

Like? Yes | No   

lingadurai   8 years AGO

3983+1=3984
3984/2=1992
1992*1992=3968064
3968064/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Tanvi Jain   8 years AGO

Sum of first n odd no=n*n
=> 3983=1+(n-1)*2 (because d=2)
=> n=1992

For above question= 1992*1992/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Surabhi Yadav   8 years AGO

1+3+5+7......+3983/1992
By Solving we get
1992*1992/1992
=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Vignesh S   8 years AGO

formula to find Sum
n/2(a+An)
To find n
an=a+(n-1)d
an=3983
a=1
d=2
3983=1+(n-1)2
3982/2=n-1
1991=n-1
n=1992
Sum (n/2)*(a+an)
(1992/2)*(1+3983)=====1992

Like? Yes | No   

anju sukumaran   8 years AGO

sum of AP= n/2(1st term + last term)......(1)
3983= 1+(n-1)2
=> n= 1992......(2)
substitute (2) into (1) to get sum of AP
=>sum of AP/1992 = 1992
hence ans=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Maheshwaran n   8 years AGO

(1+3983)/1992+(2+3982)/1992+......1992/1992
2+2+.....1=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Mokashi   8 years AGO

It is an AP with const. difference d=2
a=1 n=1991.5 and l=3983
so by applying formula for sum of n terms in AP we get
sum = (n/2)(a+l) = (1991.5/2)(1+3983) = (1991.5)(1992).
Now it is further divided by 1992 so ans is 1991.5 round to 1992

Like? Yes | No   

rajni   8 years AGO

Because Tn=a+(n-1)d ; from where we can have the value of n;i.e n=1992
and Sn=(first term + last term)n/2 ==> Sn/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Akhilesh Singh Choudhary   8 years AGO

Numerator term is in A.P.
As we know that
a+(n-1)d=t
put the value of all to find the value of n first
i.e. 1+(n-1)2=3983
solved and We get n=1992
again we know that n/2(a+l)
where l=last term =3983
put the value of all and divide by 1992
we get the required ans i.e. 1992
option 6

Like? Yes | No   

Akshay   8 years AGO

it is an ap series so diff same so sum = n(a+l)/2
now put 3983=1+ (n-1)2
n= 1992
put n n get answer sum = 1992

Like? Yes | No   

GOURANGA SUNDAR MANDAL   8 years AGO

last term of the series is 3983...so l=3983
we know l=a+(n-1)*d..
so n=1992..
sum of the term sn=n/2{2a+(n-1)d}
sum =1992*1992...
so ans is 1992..
so option 6 is correct answer

Like? Yes | No   

Saravanakumar. R   8 years AGO

i got this answer by the shortened version of addition of odd numbers till 25.

Like? Yes | No   

CHHAYA   8 years AGO

it forms an airthmetic pprogression.
a(n)=3983; a=1 ;d=2
a(n)=a+(n-1)d;
3983=1+(n-1)2;
n=1992
S(n)=n/2(a+a(n));
S(n)=1992*1992;
S(n)/1992=1992;
so answer is 1992

Like? Yes | No   

aditya   8 years AGO

from 1 to 3983 there are 1992 numbers.
n=1992
(1992*1992)/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

ABID PASHA   8 years AGO

The sum of first n odd numbers=n^2
And the number of odd terms given by [1+n]/2
so we have
[1-3983]/1992=1992 terms

So

1992^2/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Akanksha Varshney   8 years AGO

let the no of terms be n
3983=1+(n-1)×2
n=1992
sum of n odd consecutive terms=n^2
thus,ans=1992

Like? Yes | No   

nishant jain   8 years AGO

here it is an a.p
a=1 d= 2 l= 3983
therefore an= a + (n-1)d
n = 1992
Sn = n/2 * ( a+ l)
Sn = (1992*3984)/2
now ,Sn/1992
ans = 1992
option 6 is correct

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Sood   8 years AGO

AP=n/2(2*a1+(n-1)*2
Average=sum of n terms/no of terms
n=n/3984(2*1+(n-1)*2
3984n=n(2+2n-2)
3984n=2n^2
n=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Saleel Kulkarni   8 years AGO

In the series the total numbers = n = (3983+1)/2 = 1992
a1=1
difference between two numbers =d = 2
Sum/1992=((n/2)(2*a1+(n-1)*d))/1992
=((1992/2)(2+3982))/1992
=1992
Option 6

Like? Yes | No   

bhavika   8 years AGO

Total odd nos from 0 to 3983 are 1992. Sum=1992*1992.hence answer is 1992*1992/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

J   8 years AGO

Sum of n terms in Arithmetic Progression is n/2(2a+(n-1)d)
So for the above task we get 1992*1992
when it is divided by 1992 remains as 1992.

Like? Yes | No   

Nikhil Shriwastav   8 years AGO

The sum of the first n odd numbers = n^2
And the number of odd terms is given by [1 + n] / 2
So we have[1 + 3983] / 2 = 1992 terms
So 1992^2 / 1992 =1992

Like? Yes | No   

Elamaruthu   8 years AGO

1+3+5+....+3983

take the last number 3983
and add 1 in that number 3984
3984/2=1992
and 1992*1992=3968064 is the sum answer
then (1992*1992)/1992=1992(ans)

Like? Yes | No   

swastik mukherjee   8 years AGO

(1+3+5+7+...)= (last terms +1)/2=no of terms
(3983+1)/2=1992
now n*n formula.
(1992*1992)/1992=1992

Like? Yes | No   

ranjitha   8 years AGO

By the arithmetic progress equation,
Tn=a+(n-1)d we will get number of terms, n= 1992
Then using equation,
Sn=(first term+last term)*n/2 and dividing the answer by 1992
We will get answer = 1992

Like? Yes | No   

TRAYAMBAK MISHRA   8 years AGO

s=(n/2)*(A1+An)
n is total number of term and A1 is first and An is last term.

Like? Yes | No   

S.MANJULA   8 years AGO

By AP tn =a+(n-1)d
So 3983 =1+(n-1)d
n =1992
Sum =(n/2)(1+3983 )
Sum =3968064
Sum/2=1992
Option 6

Like? Yes | No   

Saurav Jaiswal   8 years AGO

sum of series = 1992(3984)/2
so after dividing with 1992.we will get 1992

Like? Yes | No   

abhi   8 years AGO

last term=3983
3983=1+(n-1)*2
n=1992
sum=n/2*(a+l)
sum=1992/2*(1+3983)
total sum=(1992*(3984)/2)/1992
total sum=1992

Like? Yes | No   

Vaibhav Khedkar   8 years AGO

no of terms=1992 by the formula;
nth term= a+ (n-1)d
sum of n terms= n/2(2a+(n-1)d)
sum/1992=1992/2(2+1991*2)/1992
ans=1992
option(6)

Like? Yes | No   

Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

n=3983-1/2+1=1992
and Sn=n/2(a+an)
Sn=1992/2(1+3983)
and in question
Sn/1992=1992 Ans

Like? Yes | No   

Akhil Kumar Arshid   8 years AGO

3983=1+(n-1)2
=> n=1992
sum = 1+3+5+.......+3983
sum=n*(a+l)/2
sum=1992*(1+3983)/2
total sum=(1+3+5+......+3983)/1992
total sum=((1992)*(3984)/2)/1992
=>total sum=1992
option 6

Like? Yes | No   

Nikhil Agarwal   8 years AGO

n = no. of terms in AP.
3983 = 1 + (n - 1)2
n = 1992.

now
(1 + 3+ 5+......+3983) = (n / 2)(1 + 3983)
(1 + 3+.........+3983) = (1992 *3984)/2
(1+3+5+......+3983)/1992 = 1992

Like? Yes | No   

Dhruv   8 years AGO

No. of terms in the series = 1992
Sum of n terms of AP = (n/2)(first term + last term)
= (1992/2)*(3984)
Sum/1992 = 3984/2 = 1992

Like? Yes | No (1)  

kavya   8 years AGO

numerator is 1992*1992
by using formulae (n(a+l))/2
n=1992,a=1,l=3983.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

26 Feb 2016 Time and Distance

Two buses travel to a place at 45 kmph and 60 kmph respectively. If the second bus takes 11/2 hours less than the first for the journey, the length of the journey is

OPtion

1) 900 km
2) 875 km
3) 945 km
4) 1050 km
5) 1350 km
6) 1260 km
7) 990 km
8) 1400 km
9) 1100 km
10)1150 km

Solution

Let the length of journey be x km. Then,
x/45 - x/60 = 11/2
990 km
Option 7)

Correct Option: 7 Best Solution (53)

Sagar Kumar Subudhi   8 years AGO

if we take the lcm of 45 and 60 den it will be 180.. der is 1hr gap between 2 bus to travel 180 km.. so 5.5 hr gap will be in 180*5.5=990 km

Like? Yes (14) | No   

mcamanjeet   8 years AGO

let the time taken by first bus is t
now 45t=60(t-11/2)
15t=330
t=22h
hence the length of journey is =45*22=990

Like? Yes (15) | No (2)  

sugayathri   8 years AGO

distance = speed*time
s1 = 45kmph
s2 = 60
t1 = xhrs
t2=x-11/2hrs

s1t1=s2t2

45x = 60(x-11/2)
x = 22hrs
d=22*45

= 990km

Like? Yes (9) | No (2)  

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

distance be=d
then
d(1/45-1/60)=11/2
d(4-3/180)=11/2
d=990km
option 7

Like? Yes (6) | No (1)  

Yashi Das   8 years AGO

Let the length of the journey be x km.
Then
(x/45)-(x/60)=11/2
x=990km

Like? Yes (4) | No   

THUMMALA VINEESHA   8 years AGO

let first bus take x hrs and sec bus takes (x-11/2)hrs
45x=60*(x-11/2)
x=22
====>>45*22=990

Like? Yes (4) | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

If distance=x km., then
(x/45) - (x/60) =11/2
(4x-3x)*2= 180*11
x=990
Option 7)

Like? Yes (3) | No   

Richa Saini   8 years AGO

Speed of 1st train=45kmph
Speed of 2nd train=60kmph
Let distance be D

As we know, Distance =speed*time
therefore time=distance/speed

Time taken by first train-11/2= Time taken by second train
=>(D/45) -11/2 = D/60

By solving this equation, we get D= 990
=>option (7) is the answer

Like? Yes (4) | No (1)  

UMANG RASTOGI   8 years AGO

Let 1st car time=t1
2nd ,, ,, =t2
than from the formula, speed=distance/time

distance by 1st=distance by 2nd
t1*45 = t2*60
bcz t2=t1-11/2
so t1*45=60*t{t1-11/2}
on solving t1=22
so distance=t1*45=990

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Rizul   8 years AGO

Let the two buses be a and b
Let the journey distance be x
speed of a = 45 kmph
speed of b = 60 kmph
time(for b) = time(for a) - 11/2
x/speed(for b) = x/speed(for a) - 11/2
x/60 = x/45 - 11/2
Solving this equation, we get x=990 km

Like? Yes (2) | No   

abhi   8 years AGO

v1t1=v2t2
45t=60 (t-11/2)
then t=22hrs
d=45*22=990km

Like? Yes (1) | No   

debanjan   8 years AGO

Let the length be x km
Now
X/45-X/60= 11/2
Solving X=990 km

Thank you

Like? Yes (1) | No   

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

Let the length of journey be x
According to question,
x/45-x/60=11/(2*60)
x=990
Option 7

Like? Yes | No   

harsh dhir   8 years AGO

Let length of journey =x km
Time=Distance/speed
According to question,
x/45-x/60=11/2
on solving,we get x=990 km

Like? Yes | No   

Sagar Jinachandran   8 years AGO

Let X be the distance travelled
according to question
time taken by 1st bus= x/45 hrs (1)
time taken by 2nd bus= x/60 hrs (2)
(x/45)-(x/60)=11/2
solving the equation we have
x=990 km
Option 7

Like? Yes | No   

DEBALINA BHATTACHARYYA   8 years AGO

Let the distance is x km.
Time taken by 1st bus is (x/45) hours.
Time taken by 2nd Bus is (x/60) hours.
so,( x/45-x/60)=11/2....(1)
By solving the above equation we get x=990 km

Like? Yes | No   

Akshay patel   8 years AGO

Both the buses have to travel equal distance.
let as assume 1bus travels for x km.
45× X = 60× (X-11/2)
15X= 330
X=22 hours..
hence distance 45×22 = 990km.

Like? Yes | No   

MAMTA KUMARI   8 years AGO

let x time will be taken by secod bus
then x+11/2 time taken by fisrt one
45(x+11/2)=60*x after solving the value of x=22
then distance =45*22=990

Like? Yes | No   

Reshma   8 years AGO

bus 1 speed=45kmph
let time=x
dist=45x
bus 2 speed=60kmph
time=x-(11/2)
dist=60x-30
45x=60x-30
x=22
dist=45*22
distance=990km

Like? Yes | No   

aman aditya   8 years AGO

45*(x+11/2) =60*x
x=16.5
so
distance = 16.5 * 60 = 990

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Mokashi   8 years AGO

for 1st bus let length of journey=x
Therefore x=45*t1
for second bus x=60*t2
and t2=t1-11/2
so x=60*(t1-11/2)
45t1=60t1-330
t1=22
so x=45*22=990

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

prasanna   8 years AGO

speed of A and B is 45 and 60.
assume time of A is x and B is( x-5.5)
(1)--> d= 45x
(2)--> d=60x-330
____________________
15x=330
x=22
Sub in 1
d=990

Like? Yes | No   

ashok ubbathoti   8 years AGO

first bus distance= 45xkm-------------------------- 1
second bus distance= 60(x-11/2)km-------------2
equate 1 and 2
45x = 60(x-11/2)--------------3
value of x will be 22
by solving above equation
length of jourmney is 45x i.e. 45(22) = 990 answer

Like? Yes | No   

Sushmita Ghanty   8 years AGO

let the distance is x
therefore,
x/45 - x/60 = 11/9
x=990

Like? Yes | No   

Karthiga   8 years AGO

We know speed =distance/time
Let x is the time taken by first
Distance=45*x
Distance of second =60*(x-(11/2))
Equting the distance x=22
Hence the distance =speed*time
=45*22
=990

Like? Yes | No   

dprasanthi   8 years AGO

speed=distance/time
60=d/t1
45=d/t2
d/60-d/45=11/2
d=990

Like? Yes | No   

p ananta   8 years AGO

here let distance 'X'
X/45-X/60=11/2
SOLVE THIS WE GET 'X' AS 990

Like? Yes | No   

GOURANGA SUNDAR MANDAL   8 years AGO

let the distance is x km..
so x/45-x/60=11/2...
calculate this equ..we get x=990..
so option 7 is correct answer

Like? Yes | No   

Dinesh kumar sah   8 years AGO

let distance traveled by them is x km.
then A.c.q
time taken by second bus is 11/2 hrs less than first...
ie x/60=x/45-11/2
or, x/45-x/60=11/2
or,4x-3x/180=11/2
or,x=180 into 11 by 2
or, x=990km Ans

Like? Yes | No   

chaitanya   8 years AGO

T1-T2=5.5
LET THE DISTANCE BE D
SO (D)*((1/45)-(1/60))=5.5
SO ON SOLVING D=990

Like? Yes | No   

Pankaj Sonawane   8 years AGO

as speed of 1 st and 2 nd bus is 45 and 60 kmph resp
so let x be the time required to travel whole distance for 1 st bus
now as distance travel by both buses are equal
so
45*x=60*(x-5.5)

X=22 hr
now total length is
45*22
=990

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richabharti   8 years AGO

let distance be x then equ becomes x/45+11/2=x/60...aftr solving the equ x will be 990km which will be total distance.

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Kishore K   8 years AGO

difference between their times is 11/2 hrs
from that solve for X
X/45-X/60=11/2
X=990

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Roshan   8 years AGO

Let us consider distance =d
D/60 - d/45 =11/2
After solving we get
D=990km

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mohd shahnawaz   8 years AGO

since the distance for both buses are same therefore we know s = d/t, and d= s * t; the equation will be 45*t=60*(t-11/2)

we get t= 22;

hence d= 45 * 22 = 990km

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Sood   8 years AGO

Let the Distance be x
Time be y
V1=45km/h
V2=60km/h

x=45y
x=2y-11/2(y-11/2)
From (1) and (2)
45y=2y-11/2
y=22
Putting value of y in eq1
x=45*22=990km

Like? Yes | No   

akshay   8 years AGO

45=d/t or 60=d/t-11/2 then t=22 hr and put t in any equation then d=990km.

Like? Yes | No   

Ranganath   8 years AGO

Distance remains same for both the buses. So, equating distance covered by both the buses and evaluate time. Later compute the distance.

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Jebas Gnana Prakash E   8 years AGO

Take bus 2
990/60
=16.5

take bus 1
990/45
=22-5.5(Time in hours)
=16.5

Like? Yes | No   

sachin sawant   8 years AGO

Time= distance/speed
d/45-d/60=11/2
d=11/2*180=990
And option 7

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Kaushal Kumar   8 years AGO

Let t time to cover x distance .
Distance x is same for both ,
So 45*t=60*(t-11/2)
t=22h
Now, x=45*22
=990km

Like? Yes | No   

Saleel Kulkarni   8 years AGO

Bus A:
1hr----45km
x hr----h km
Therefore,
x=(h/45)_______1

Bus B:
1hr---60km
(x-5.5)hr---h km
x=(h/60)+5.5_____2

From equation 1 and 2
h/90=5.5
h=990km

Option 7

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Sravanthi Aasa   8 years AGO

t=distance/speed

t1-t2=11/2 hrs

11/2=distance[(1/45)-(1/60)] =distance/180

distance=11*180/2---->distance=990

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kajal   8 years AGO

D/450-d/60=11/2
D/180=11/2
D=11*180/2
D=990

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Vishakha Srivastava   8 years AGO

Distance =speed*time
as distance is constant then D1=D2
let time for 1st journey be x
s1*t1=s2*t2
45*x=60*(x-11/2)
x=22
D1=D2=990 ...by putting the value of time and distance for any of the journeys we will get the same value for distance.

Like? Yes | No   

Aakriti goyal   8 years AGO

distance travelled by bus1= distance travelled by bus2
45*t=60*(t-11/2)
after solving this equation
t=22hr
now d=45*t
d=45*22=990km

Like? Yes | No   

Akshay Nivrutti Raskar   8 years AGO

u=45kmph v= 60kmph
t1=t t2= t-11/2
same distance is covered=x
x=45 * t = 60 * (t-11/2)
t=22
x= 22 * 45 = 990

Like? Yes | No   

rohit yadav   8 years AGO

d/45 - d/60 = 11/2

after solving,

d=990

Like? Yes | No   

Amit Vaswani   8 years AGO

let assume the distance is x
then the time taken by first bus is=x/45
time taken by second bus=x/60
according to the question
x/45-x/60=11/2
x=990

Like? Yes | No   

KHUSHBOO   8 years AGO

Distance(D) =speed * time
time = distance/speed
s1 = 45
s2 = 60
D/s1 - D/s2 = 11/2
D/45 - D/s2 = 11/2
take LCM
(4D-3D)/180 = 11/2
D = 990 km

Like? Yes | No   

purimitla venkatrao   8 years AGO

assume length -l
time is -x
first bus traveled distance is. l= 45*x
second bus travelled distance l=60*(x-11/2)
after solving equations x=22.
distance d =45*22
= 990.

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Maneesh Gupta   8 years AGO

Let the distance be d.
(d/45)=(d/60)+(11/2)
=>15d/(60×45)=11/2
=> d=990 km
Option 7

Like? Yes | No (1)  

Suhail Jahangir   8 years AGO

Let distance be x... Time taken by firsr bus a=x/60..by second bus b=x/45.....
a-b=11/2

Like? Yes | No (1)  

25 Feb 2016 Time and work

Rajesh and Mohan working separately can do a piece of work in 9 days and 12 days respectively. If they work for a day alternately, Rajesh beginning, in how many days, the work will be completed?

OPtion

1) 21/2
2) 11/2
3) 21/4
4) 43/3
5) 31/3
6) 41/3
7) 32/3
8) 31/4
9) 41/4
10)33/4

Solution

(Rajesh+Mohan)'s 2 day's work = 1/9 + 1/12 = 7/36
Work done in 5 pair of days = (5*7/36) = 35/36
Remaining work = (1 - 35/36) = 1/36
On 11th days it is Rajesh's Turn
1/9 : 1/36 :: 1 : x
x = 1/36 * 1 * 9
= 1/4 days
Therefore
Total time taken 10 1/4 = 41/4 days

Correct Option: 9 Best Solution (24)

THUMMALA VINEESHA   8 years AGO

Rajesh's 1 days's work=1/9
Mohan's 1 days work=1/12
two days work of both=(1/9)+(1/12)=7/36
for 10 days =35/36
remaining work=1/36
on 11th day rajesh's turn=1/36*9=1/4
totally 10(1/4)days==10+(1/4)=41/4

Like? Yes (7) | No   

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

(rajesh +mohan)'s 2 days work = (1/9+1/12)= 7/36
work done in 5 pairs of days = (5*7/36)
remaining work = 1-35/36= 1/36.
on 11th day , 1/9th work will be done rajesh in 1 day.
1/36 work will be done by him in (9*1/36)= 1/4
so total time taken = 10+1/4= 41/4

option 9)

Like? Yes (3) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

Rajesh mohan.
9. 12
36
4. 3
4+3. in 2 days
7*5 =35 rasgulla in 5*2=10 days
remaining 1 rasgulla in 1/4
so total time is 10+1/4=41/4days
option 9

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sanjeet kumar   8 years AGO

Rajesh 1 day's work =1/9
Mohan 1 day's work = 1/12
Working together their's 1 day's work = 7/36
Therefore in 2 days work completed = 7/36;
so in 10 days work completed = 35/36;
Remaining work 1/36 is done by Rajesh in 1/4 days.
So total days taken = 10+1/4= 41/4

Like? Yes (1) | No   

mcamanjeet   8 years AGO

rajesh works =1/9 per day
mohan works =1/12 per day
sum of work in 2 days = 1/9+1/12=7/36
7*5/36 work in 10 days , 1/36 work is remaning
rajesh complete 1/9 in 1 day
then 1 in 9 days
and 1/36 in 9*1/36=1/4 days
finally in 10+1/4=41/4 days rajesh will complete the work .

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

UMANG RASTOGI   8 years AGO

let the seq. be RMRMRMRMRM
so 5/9 + 5/12 = 35/36 + x/9 = 1

x=.25
so 10.25 = "41/4" ANS.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

raja   8 years AGO

Rajesh 1 day-----> 1/9 th work
Mohan 1 day-----> 1/12 th work

Rajesh 1 day work + Mohan 1 day work -----> 1/9 + 1/12 =7/36 th of work

Thus in 2 days work done = 7/36 th of work

Rajesh + Mohan in 10 days ------> 35/36 th of work

Remaining work=1/36

rajesh does this in 1/4 day.

Total no. of days= 10+1/4
= 41/4

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Rakesh Kumar Kohli   8 years AGO

Work done by Rajesh in 1 day = 1/9
Work done by Mohan in 1 day = 1/12
as they work for a day alternatively so work done in 2 days by them = 1/9 + 1/12 = 7/36
In 10 days they will work = (7/36 )* 5 = 35/36
On 11th day it will be turn of Rajesh who will do the remaining 1/36 work in 1/4 days.
So the total time taken to finish work is 10 + 1/4 = 41/4 days

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Anee   8 years AGO

total units of work that needs to be completed is 36 units.
In 1 day A can complete 4 units of work & B can complete 3 units of work
If they work alternatively then they will complete the work in 10 1/4 days =41/4 days

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himanshu   8 years AGO

leet total work to be done=36
effieiency of rajesh for one day=4
efficiency of mohan=3
their two day work=7
in 10 days work to be done=35
nw rajesh will take 1/4 time more
so answer is 41/4

Like? Yes | No   

aman aditya   8 years AGO

let total work is 36 unit (LCM of 9,12)
rejesh does in one day =36/9= 4 unit
mohan does in one day = 36/12 = 3 unit
in alternate days they do (4+3) unit in 2 days
So in 10 days 35 unit is done and final day it is rajesh turn so he does it in 1/4 days.
hence 10 + 1/4 =41/4

Like? Yes | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

2 days work of Rajesh & Mohan= (1/9) + (1/12)=7/36
So upto 10 days work completed=5*7/36=35/36
Remaining work=1/36, which will be completed by Rajesh in (1/36)/(1/9)=1/4 days
So work will be completed in 10+(1/4)=41/4 days
Option 9)

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Amit   8 years AGO

5/9+5/12=105/108
remaining work=3/108
now rajesh turn of work so
n/9=3/108
i.e. n=1/4
total days
2*5+1/4
41/4

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Sood   8 years AGO

Let unit of work be 360 units
Work done by Rajesh in 1 Day=40units
Work done by Mohan in 1 Day=30units
Working alternately
5(40)+5(30)+1/4(40)=360 units
hence no. of days=10+1/4=41/4days

Like? Yes | No   

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

Number of days taken by Rajesh and Mohan to complete the work is 36/7 days =5+(1/7) days
They worked for a day alternately,so work will go till 5*2=10 days
and on the 11th day,Rajesh will work.So.the work will be completed in 10+(9/36) =10+(1/4)=41/4 days

Like? Yes | No   

ashok ubbathoti   8 years AGO

both rajesh and mohan can do in 7/36
if they work in alternative days for two days their work is 7/36
after 10 days their work is 35/36
remaining work is 1/36
it have to be done by rajesh
so 1/36 is rajesh's 1/4th of the day
so total days is 10+1/4
41/4

Like? Yes | No   

Sagar Kumar Subudhi   8 years AGO

in 10 days both will complete 0.9722 of work. On 11th day rajesh will be working and he will complete rest of work i.e. 0.0277778 of work in approx 6 hours. So 10.25 days

Like? Yes | No   

harsh dhir   8 years AGO

(1/9)+(1/12)=7/36
work is done in two days.
35/36 work will be done in 10 days.so remaining 1/36 work will be done by rajesh in 1/36*9=1/4 days.
so tatal days=10+1/4=41/4.

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MAMTA KUMARI   8 years AGO

RAJESH+MOHAN 2 DAYS WORK=(1/9+1/12)=7/36
5 DAYS=5*7/36=35/36
REMG WRK (1-35/36)=1/36)
9*1/36=1/4 DAYS
=(10+1/4)=41/4

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karthiga   8 years AGO

LCM of 9 & 12 is 36;
Rajesh one day work is 36/9=4;
Mohan one day work is 36/12=3;
they are working alternately,
In 10 days 35 part is completed;
next day start by Rajesh; He do 1/4th day;
so overall 10(1/4)days = 41/4 answer;

Like? Yes | No   

Akshat Mokashi   8 years AGO

Work done by both in a pair=7/36
now work done in 5 pair=(5*7/36)=35/36
Remaining work=1/36
A will take 9*1/36=1/4 days to complete this.
Total days req =10+1/4=41/4

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purimitla venkatrao   8 years AGO

Daily they do 12 ,9 parts each other
12 ,9,12,9,12,9,12,9,12,9,3/12
10*1/4

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alka patel   8 years AGO

both will take individually time 5.25 and 5 so total time is 10.25 ie. 41/4

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Akshay Nivrutti Raskar   8 years AGO

(Rajesh's and Mohan's ) 2 day's work= 1/9 +1/12 = 7/36
Multiply 7/36 by number such that it isless than 1
therefore 5 * 7/36 =35/36
rajesh and mohan work for 5 days each to complete 35/36
Remaining work = 1/36
Rajesh will do remainming work in 9*1/36 = 1/4 days
Total days = 5 + 5 + 1/4 = 41/4

Like? Yes | No