M4maths Previous Puzzles

27 Jan 2016 Area

Manvinder rides along the boundary of a rectangular park at the rate of 12 km/hr and completes one full round in 15 minutes. If the length of the park is 4 times its breadth, the area of the park is

OPtion

1) 360000 m^2
2) 48000 m^2
3) 3600 m^2
4) 480 m^2
5) 72000 m^2
6) 7200 m^2
7) 720 m^2
8) 480000 m^2
9) 36000 m^2
10)None of these

Solution

Perimeter = Distance traveled in 15 minute
= 12000 * 15/60 m
= 3000 m
Let breadth = x metres.
Then length = 4x metres
Therefore 2 (x+4x) = 3000
of x = 300
There breadth = 300 m and length = 1200 m
Area = 300*1200 = 360000 m^2
Option 1)

Correct Option: 1 Best Solution (12)

harsh dhir   8 years AGO

Speed=12 km/hr
time taken=15 minutes=1/4 hour
distance travelled=12/4=3 km
this distance is equal to perimeter of rectangle.
perimeter of rectangle=2(l+b)
Length of the rectangle=4 b
2(4b+b)=3000 m
b=300 m, l=4*300=1200 m
Area of rectangle=l*b=1200*300=360000 m^2

Like? Yes (5) | No   

PIYUSH KUMAR   8 years AGO

speed =12km/h
time= 15minute
Distance=Speed*Time
D=12*15/60
=3km
Now Let width= X than length = 4X
so perimeter of rectangle = 2(L+w) => 2(4w+w) => 10w
3 = 10w
w = .3km = .3*1000 = 300m
so Length = 4 w = 4* 300 =1200
Now Area of rectangle = L * W
= 1200 * 300 =360000 m^2

Like? Yes (4) | No   

SHUBHAM   8 years AGO

time=1/4 hr
speed=12 kmph
distance=speed*time
=>distance=3km
now perimeter=2(length+breadth)
breadth=length/4
=>length=4*breadth
hence,2*(4*breadth+breadth)=3km
=>breadth =3/10 km=300m
and length =4*(3/10)km=12/10km=1200m
hence area =length*breadth
=>area =300*1200
360000m^2

Like? Yes (2) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

distance of park is 12*1/4=3km=3000m
2*(4x+x)=3000
x=300m
area =1200*300=360000m^2
option 1

Like? Yes (2) | No   

NIKHIL JAIN   8 years AGO

In 15 minutes Distance covered= 3km= 3*1000m
But length=4*breadth
let x= breadth
length=4x
Perimeter=10x=3000
x=300m
length= 1200m
Area= l*b= 300*1200= 360000m^2

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

If breadth=x km. ,then length=4x km.
Distance covered in one full round=Perimeter=2(x+4x)=10x which is distance covered in 15 min. or 1/4 hr @ 12 Km/hr=12/4=3 Km.
So 10x=3, x=3/10 km =3*1000/10=300 m.
So area of rectangular park=length*breadth=4x*x=4*300*300=360000 sq.m.
Option 1)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Arun Maharana   8 years AGO

12km/hr in 15 mins =3km
2(l+b)=3000mtr
l+b=1500
but given length is 4times than breadth
l=4b
=>5b=1500
=>b=300
l=1200
area =l*b=360000mtrsq

Like? Yes (1) | No   

satish ojha   8 years AGO

length x , breadth 4x
perimeter =10x
10 x = 12*(5/18)*15*60=3000
x=300
4x=1200
area =360000m^2

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Abhineet kumar   8 years AGO

v=12*(5/18)=10/3
s=10/3*15*60=3000m
let breadth is b
so length is 4b
perimeter is 2(l+b)=3000
2(b+4b)=3000
b=300
length=1200
area=300*1200=360000m^2

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

ayushi   8 years AGO

area= length*breadth =
=l=1200
b=300
l*b=360000

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

vineesha p   8 years AGO

v=12kmph
t=15minutes =1/4 hr
distance(S) = vel*time = 3 km
he ran across circumference 2(l+b)=3km
l=4b
2(5b)=3
b=0.3
therefore, area l*b=4b*b=4(0.3)*(0.3)=0.36km^2=0.36(1000)^2 =360000m2

Like? Yes (2) | No (2)  

Anurag Rastogi   8 years AGO

length = 4 breadth
total distance = 2(l+b)
speed = distanve/time
change km in m and minutes in hour.
area = length x breadth

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

26 Jan 2016 Area

If the canal is 10 m wide at the top and 6 m wide at bottom and the area of cross-section is 640 m^2, the length of canal is (The cross-section of a canal is a trapezium in shape)

OPtion

1) 172 m
2) 384 m
3) 90 m
4) 274 m
5) 120 m
6) 160 m
7) 60 m
8) 50 m
9) 80 m
10)40 m

Solution

1/2 (10+6) * d = 640
d = 640*2 / 16 = 80 m

Option 9)

Correct Option: 9 Best Solution (28)

Sagar Jinachandran   8 years AGO

Area of Trapezium A = (a+b)/2*h
A=640 m^2
a= 10 m
b= 6 m
so we have
640 = (10+6)/2*h
640 = 8 h
h = 80 m

Like? Yes (9) | No (1)  

Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

let the length of canal be l.
then the area of cross section will be

6l+2{(1/2)×2l}=640
8l=640
l=80

Like? Yes (4) | No (1)  

Neelima Kongathi   8 years AGO

area of trapezium = 0.5 * (sum of parallel lines) * h
640 = 0.5 * 16 * h
h = 80m

Like? Yes (3) | No   

Yashi Das   8 years AGO

Area=640 m^2
a=10 m
b= 6 m
(1/2)(a+b)* l = 640
putting all the values,l= 80 m

Like? Yes (2) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

area of trapezium =1/2*(a1+a2)*h
640=1/2*(10+6)*h
h=80m
option 9

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

Area =1/2(b1+b2)h
640=1/2(10+6)h
h=80
Option 2

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

ABHINAV PUSHPAM   8 years AGO

640=1/2*(10+6)* length
so, length= 640/8
= 80
option 9)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

If top diameter=a=10 and bottom diamere=b=6, then
with height 'h',Trapezoid area =h(a+b)/2=640
So h=640*2/(10+6)=80
Option 9)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Abhineet kumar   8 years AGO

let length is x
area of trapezium is 1/2*sum of parallel sides*distance between them
so
1/2(10+6)*x=640
x=80m

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Ram Kumar Prajapati   8 years AGO

area of trapezium = [(a+b)/2]*h
640=[(10+6)/2]*h
h=80m

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Saurabh Agrawal   8 years AGO

area of trapezium = (height* sum of parallel sides)/2
640=((10+6)*x)/2
x=80

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

RITESH KUMAR JHA   8 years AGO

h(a+b)/2=640
a=10
b=6
hence, h= 80m

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Jaikumar Bhatia   8 years AGO

By trapezium formula,
A=(a+b)/2*h
640=[(10+6)/2]*h
h=80m
Ans 80m
option (9)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Jamil Ahmed   8 years AGO

Area of trapezium = 1/2*h*(a + b), where h is height and a & b are length of the parallel sides.
Here, a = 10 m and b = 6 m.
Therefore, 640 = 1/2*h*(10+6)
Solving, we get, h = 80 m

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Yash Saxena   8 years AGO

cross section is trapezium the two given sides must be parallel sides and the required answer is its length so putting the area we get the required length of the canal

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

sunita kumawat   8 years AGO

trapezium formula = 1/2(10+6)h=640
640/8=h
80=h

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

bubbly   8 years AGO

area of trapezium=1/2(a+b)h
640=1/2(10+6)h
h=l
l=80m^2

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Anannya Mathur   8 years AGO

Let length of canal be h.
1/2*h*(10+6)=640
h=80m

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Saleel Kulkarni   8 years AGO

Let the length of the canal be x
so if we take the cross section area of the canal=twice the area of the right angle triangle + area of the rectangle
640= x+x+6x
x=80m
Option 9)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

DHAKAD NEETENDRA SINGH   8 years AGO

It makes a trapezium which contain two triangles both sides and a quardilateral in between them.

let height is h
then 1/2*2*h + 1/2*2*h + 6*h = 640
by solving ... we get
h=80m ans...

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

YASWANTH REDDY   8 years AGO

let the height of the canal be 'h' m.
Given area of cross section(trapezoidal) = 640 sq.m
therefore 640 = 0.5*h*(6+10),
then we get h = 80 m

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

mitali garg   8 years AGO

area of trapezium is h(a+b)/2
therefore a and b are 10 and 6
h(16)/2=640
8h=640
h=640/8
h=80

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

satish ojha   8 years AGO

(100+6)/2=8 m wide avg
length * wide =640
length = 640/8 =80

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

GOURANGA SUNDAR MANDAL   8 years AGO

the area of the canel is (10+6)/2*lenght=640
so length is 80..so option 9 is correct answer

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

ayushi   8 years AGO

area of trapezium =640
640=1/2*length(6+10)
length=80 m

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

sumit kumar   8 years AGO

1/2*(10+6)×height=640
height=80m

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

Mukund Manohar   8 years AGO

Area of trapezium = 1/2(a+b)h
640=1/2(10+6)h
On solving,length of canal h=80m

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

sugayathri   8 years AGO

area of a trapezium = [(a+b)]h/2


(10+6)h/2 = 640m^2

h = 80m

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

25 Jan 2016 Sequence

What is the next number of the following sequence
14, 31, 41, 58, 147, ......

OPtion

1) 224
2) 213
3) 352
4) 327
5) 182
6) 297
7) 172
8) 176
9) 251
10)203

Solution

14
14 + 1^2 + 4^2 = 14+1+16 = 31
31 + 3^2 + 1^2 = 31+9+1 = 41
41 + 4^2 + 1^2 = 41+16+1 = 58
58 + 5^2 + 8^2 = 58+25+64 = 147
147 + 1^2 + 4^2 + 7^2 = 147+1+16+49 = 213
Option 2)

Correct Option: 2 Best Solution (11)

GOURANGA SUNDAR MANDAL   8 years AGO

the 1st term of series is 14 then the 2nd term =14+{(1)^2+(4)^2}=17...thus the 3rd term , 4th term are produced..so the last term is {147+(1)^2+(4)^2+(7)^2}=213....so option 2 is correct answer

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Pranav Sathe   8 years AGO

the difference between 2 consecutive numbers in the square of individual numbers within a number..eg
1*1 + 4*4 + 14=31
3*3+1*1 +31=41...1*1+4*4+7*7+147=213

Like? Yes (2) | No   

RAKESH   8 years AGO

14+ (1^2+4^2) ------ 31



147+(1^2+4^2+7^2) ---------- 213

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

14+(1^2+4^2)=31
31+(3^2+1^2)=41
41+(4^2+1^2)=58
58+(5^2+8^2)=147
147+(1^2+4^2+7^2)=213
Option 2)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

satish ojha   8 years AGO

147+1+4^2+7^2=213

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

14+4^2+1^2=31
31+3^2+1^2=41
41+16+1=58
58+25+64=147
147+1+16+49=213
option 2

Like? Yes (1) | No   

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

14
14+1+16=31
31+9+1=4e1
41+16+1=58
58+25+64=147
147+1+16+49=213
Option 2

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Ramgopal   8 years AGO

14
14+1^2+4^2=31
31+3^2+1^2=41
41+4^2+1^2=58
58+8^2+5^2=147
147+1^2+4^2+7^2=203

Like? Yes (1) | No   

G BHARATH REDDY   8 years AGO

14+17=31
31+10=41
41+17=58
58+89=147
147+66=213

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Surabhi Yadav   8 years AGO

14=1^2+4^2=17
14+17=31=3^2+1^2=10
31+10=41=4^2+1^2=17
41+17=58
Similarly
1^2+4^2+7^2=1+16+49=66+147
=213

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sachin sawant   8 years AGO

1^2+4^2=17
14+17=31
Similarly,3^2+1^2=10
31+10=41
Thus,for147,(1^2+4^2+7^2=66)
147+66=213
Option2

Like? Yes (1) | No   

22 Jan 2016 How many number

If repetition of numbers is not allowed then how many numbers of five digits can be formed by using 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, if 4 is necessarily taken at hundred's place and 2 is not allowed at unit's place.

OPtion

1) 72
2) 16
3) 12
4) 120
5) 96
6) 18
7) 60
8) 30
9) 15
10)24

Solution

4 is necessarily taken at hundred's place and 2 is not allowed at unit's place,
hence number of methods = 1*3*3*2*1 = 18
You can also check the answer by making different numbers under given conditions.

Option 6)

Correct Option: 6 Best Solution (19)

sugayathri   8 years AGO

3 no's are placed in 3! ways=6

4 is placed in 1 way
2 is placed in 3 ways
=6*1*3=18

Like? Yes (3) | No   

BONAM SRINIVAS   8 years AGO

first 4 is placed in hundred's place in 1 way,next 2 should not in units place so remaining 3 no. placed in 3 ways,now remaining 3 places,here repetition not allowed
10's place is filled in 3 ways now remaining 2 places is filled in 2 ways and last 1 way
therefore total ways=1*3*3*2*1=18 ways

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Vishwadeep Solpankhi   8 years AGO

out of 5 digits, 4 is fixed for hundredths place. remaining 4 digits which are 1,2,3,5 for remaining 4 places.
So, hundredth place can be filled in only 1 way (4)
Digit 2 is not allowed at units place.
so Units place can be filled in 3 ways (1,3,5 (because repetition is not allowed) )
Tens place can now be filled in 3 ways (digit 4 is used for hundredth place and any one digit except 2 is used for units place, so we are left with 3 digits as 2 have been used)
Now, thousands place can be filled in 2 ways
ten thousands place can be filled in 1 way

Answer = No. of ways = 3x3x1x2x1 = 18

Like? Yes (2) | No   

suryakant singh   8 years AGO

4 is fix then we have only 1,2,3,5
2 is not allowed at unit place then
at unit place we have 3 option ...similarly at 10 place we have 3 option then
at next place 2 and then 1 so,we can form 3*3*2*1 numbers means 18

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Yashi Das   8 years AGO

4 in hundred's place ->1way
2 not to be in unit's place -> 3 ways
remaining 3 places can be filled by -> 3*2*1=6ways
therefore,
1*3*3*2*1=18 ways

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

neeraja   8 years AGO

1 as 1st digit ----- 4 nos
2 as 1st digit ----- 6 nos
3 as 1st digit ----- 4 nos
5 as 1st digit ----- 4 nos
total 18 nos

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Abhikant Bhave   8 years AGO

3 at units place 3at
tens place 1 at hundreds place 2 at thousand place 1 at ten thousand place
so 3 × 3× 1×2×1

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Digvijay singh tomar   8 years AGO

Since 4 Is fixed at 100th postion.
therefore possibility of putting 4 At 100th place is 1 .

now 2 Can't be placed at unit position.
therefore possibility for unit's position is 3,
i.e. 1,3,5 Can come at unit's place.
now remaining three numbers are put at remaining positions without repitition.
therefore

3*3*1*2*1=18

Like? Yes (1) | No   

vipin pandey   8 years AGO

as hundred place can be filled in only 1 way and unit place can be filled in 3 ways and remaining by 3×2×1

Like? Yes (1) | No   

S VANI   8 years AGO

hundred's place is replaced with only 4.
then unit's place is not replaced with 2 then possible chances for filling unit's digit is 3(remaining no's).
ten's place filled with remaining digits i.e., 3.
thousand's place filled with 2 digits.
tenthousand's place filled with remaining 1 digit.
finally answer =(1*2*1*3*3)=18.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Parag Wagh   8 years AGO

For no. 4 = 1 place
for 2 = 3 places
for 3 = 3 places
for 5 = 2 places
for 1 = 1 place
total = 1*3*3*2*1 = 18

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sumit kumar   8 years AGO

we call fill hundred's place with 1 way.....(1)
unit place 2 is not allowed so it can be filled with 3 possible way....(2)
repetition is nort allowed so ten's place can fill with 3 ways...(3)
4th place can filled with 2 position way....(4)
5th place can filled with 1 possible way.....(5)
with equation (1) to (5)
total possible way to form a number is 1*2*1*3*3=18
option 6

Like? Yes (1) | No   

RITESH KUMAR JHA   8 years AGO

keeping 4 at hundred place by 1 way, with ought keeping 2 at unit place. it will 3 way. after that 3 way again by keeping 2 . now by 2 way and last by 1 way again. and at last ans is from unt place to last place= 3×3×1×2×1=18

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Jaydev Dinda   8 years AGO

As per question, 4 has to be at hundred place..
Case 1
if 4 is hundred place and 2 is at unit place then possible arrangements of 5 digit number are 3!*1*1=6
Case 2
If 4 is at hundred place then possible arrangements of 5 digit number are 4!=24.

Hence, 4 at hundred place and 2 is not unit place,
24-6=18
Option 6 (ans)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

v.sudha   8 years AGO

no. of ways of filling 4 in the hundred places=1
remaining 4 numbers in the units place except 2=3
remaining 3 numbers in the tens place =3
2 numbers in thousand place=2
last position=1
total no. of ways=1*2*3*3*1=18 ways

Like? Yes (1) | No   

v.pravalika   8 years AGO

4 in hundred position =1
except 2 remaining 3 digits in units place=3
including 2 tens place=3
thousand place=2
last position=1
total no.=18

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Shyam Sundar   8 years AGO

4 has been decided so we have 4 places to put on .
on unit digit 2 can't come so there is possibility of using 3 no.s 1,3,5 so for 3 ways and for tens we'll have again three including 2 but one no. has been put in unit place .
So for it 3 ways and so for thousand place 2 and ten thousands place 1 .
1*2*3*3

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Rajani Chaganti   8 years AGO

4 is fixed..so it can be arranged in one way
2 should not be arranged in units place.so it can be arranged in 3 ways..
then remaining numbers are arranged in 3! ways..so
1×3×6=18 ways

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Saleel Kulkarni   8 years AGO

possible nos at hundred's place =1
at unit's place = 3 as no 2 is not allowed
at ten's place = 3
at thousand = 2
at ten thousand = 1
1*3*3*2*1=18

Option 6)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

21 Jan 2016 Time and work

Ashok can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works at it for 10 days and then Bhuwnesh alone finishes the work in 42 days. The number of days taken by the two together to finish the work, is

OPtion

1) 40
2) 35
3) 32
4) 34
5) 30
6) 28
7) 26
8) 25
9) 22
10)24

Solution

Ashok's 10 day's work = 10/80 = 1/8
Remaining work = (1 - 1/8) = 7/8
7/8 work is done by Bhuwnesh is 42 days
therefore whole work will be done by B in (42* 8/7) = 48 days
Therefore (Ashok + Bhuwnesh)'s 1 day's work = 1/80 + 1/48 = 1/30
Hence both together can finish the work in 30 days.

Option 5)

Correct Option: 5 Best Solution (41)

Piyush Dubey   8 years AGO

Let total unit of work=80 unit
Unit of work done by Ashok in 1 day=1 unit.
Unit of work done by Bhuvnesh in 1 day=70/42=5/3.
So,(1+5/3)x=80
so, x=30 days.

Like? Yes (35) | No (5)  

GOURANGA SUNDAR MANDAL   8 years AGO

ashok can do the work in 80 days....so in 1 day he can finish the 1/80 portion of work
after 10 days 1/8 portion work is completed ..then the remaining work is 7/8 portion
bhuwnesh can do work 7/8 portion in 42 daya
so bhuwnesh can do work in 1 day 1/48 portion
both of them together can do work in 1 day(1/48 +1/80)=1/30portion
so to finish the work they take 30 days
..so option 5 is correct answer

Like? Yes (7) | No (1)  

Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

ashok completes 1/8 part of work so bhuwnesh will have to complete the 7/8 parts
=>42(1/x)=7/8
=>x=48
thus bhuwnesh takes 48 days to complete the work alone.
when they both work together,
n{(1/80)+(1/48)}=1
n=30 days ??

Like? Yes (7) | No (1)  

satish ojha   8 years AGO

Ashok do =80 days
bhuwesh do =48 days

both r doing = 16*5*3/(8)= 30 days

Like? Yes (11) | No (6)  

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

10 day's work of Ashok=10/8=1/8, so remaining work=7/8
If Bhuwnesh alone can finish the work in 'x' days, then his 1 day work=1/x, So (7/8)/(1/x)=42, 1/x=1/42
1 day's work of Ashok & Bhuwnesh=(1/80)+(1/42)=1/30
So together they will finish the work in 30 days
Option 5)

Like? Yes (5) | No (1)  

Digvijay singh tomar   8 years AGO

Ashok did a work in 1 Day = 1/80
let bhuvnesh do a work in 1 Day = 1/x
then ,
(10/80)+(42/x)=1
therefore,
x=48
now,
both combinely can do a work in 1 Day=(1/80)+(1/48)=(1/y)
and hence
they can complete a work in 30 Days.

Like? Yes (5) | No (1)  

TUSHARKANTA SAHOO   8 years AGO

after 10 days ashok had done 1/8 work
rest 7/8 work is done by bhuwnesh in 42 days.so bhuwnesh can alone work it in 42*(8/7)=48 days
ashok & bhuwnesh's 1 days work=1/80+1/48=1/30
so work can be completed in 30 days

Like? Yes (4) | No   

sainath kadam   8 years AGO

time taken by ashok to complete the work=80 days

% of done by ashok in 10 day=(10/80)*100 which is 12.5%

% of work done by ashok in 1 day=(12.5/10) which is 1.25%

in 42 days Bhuwnesh completed (100-12.5)=87.5% work

time taken by Bhuwnesh to complete work=(87.5/42)*100 which is 48 days

time required to complete work together=(80*48)/128 which is 30 days(i.e. H.M of ashok and bhuwnesh)

Like? Yes (4) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

ashok 10 days work =10/80=1/8
remaining work =1-1/8=7/8
bhuwnesh total work done in 42*8/7=48 days
total work by both in 48*80/128=30 days
option 5

Like? Yes (5) | No (2)  

subiraj   8 years AGO

ashok can do 1/80 part of work in one day
in 10 days he can do 1/8 part of work
the remaining 7/8 part is done by bhuwnesh
bhuwnesh completes 7/8 part of work in 42 days
so he completes 1/48 ie (7/8*42) part in one day
ashok requires 80 days and bhuwnesh requores 48 days
so together the require (48*80)/(48+80)=30 days

Like? Yes (3) | No   

harsh dhir   8 years AGO

work done by ashok in 10 days=1/8
remaining work=7/8
days taken by bhuvnesh to complete 7/8 work=42 days.so he can complete whole work in 42*8/7=48 days
togethr they can complete work in 80*48/(80+48)=30 days

Like? Yes (5) | No (2)  

Jamil Ahmed   8 years AGO

Ashok finished 1/8th part of work in 10 days. Hence, remaining part of the work left = 7/8th
Bhuwnesh finished 7/8th part of work in 42 days. So, he could finish the whole work alone in 8/7*42 = 48 days.

Therefore, they will finish the work together in 1/(1/48 + 1/80) days = 30 days

Like? Yes (3) | No   

Jyoti prabha Patel   8 years AGO

work done by ashok in 10 days= 1/80*10 =>1/8
so, remaining work=7/8
Bhuwnesh completes 7/8 work in 42 days,
7 parts of work=42 days so 1 part= 6days
so he will complete the total work in 42+6= 48 days

now time taken by both to complete the work is
t(A+B)=(80*48)/(80+48)= 30days

Like? Yes (3) | No   

venkadesh   8 years AGO

1 Day work of ashok 1
1day work of bhuwnesh 1.67
entire work done by both 2.67
80/2.67=30

Like? Yes (3) | No (1)  

Anusha Kallapu   8 years AGO

finding their one day work.. then we can get the together work of them

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Praveen Gupta   8 years AGO

ashok
100% work = 80days
1 day = 100/80 % work
10days=100*10/80
bhuwnesh
100-100/8 =42 days
700/8 =42 day
both together work in one day=3.33%
to complete 100% work they tks 30 days

Like? Yes (2) | No   

RISHABH   8 years AGO

Ashok 1 day's work=1/80
so, 10 days work=10/80=1/8
So, total work left=1-1/8=7/8
Bhuwnesh finishes the remaining (i.e 7/8)work in 42 days
so alone he can finish the work in 42*8/7 days =48 days
So, both can finish the work in 1/80+1/48=8/240 days
=240/8=30 days

Like? Yes (2) | No   

RITESH KUMAR JHA   8 years AGO

1 day work of ashok is 1/80 . so, 10 day work is 10/80. now. remaining work os 1-10/80=70/80 which is done by bhuwnesh in 42 days. from here bhuwneah 1 day work is 1/48.therefore 1/80+1/48= number of days taken by both is 30. so, ans is 30

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Nitesh kumar   8 years AGO

because ashok done 1/8 works in 10 days and remaining work which is 7/8 done by bhuvanesh in 42 days so bhuvnesh complet alone it in 48 days now they together complet in 1/80 +1/48=30 days

Like? Yes (2) | No   

NIKHIL JAIN   8 years AGO

Ashok one day work = 1/80
work done by him in 10 days= 1/8
remaining work=1-1/8=7/8
Bhuwnesh does 7/8 wprk in 42 days.
His one day work= 1/48
Together they will finish the work in = (80*48)/128=30 daysd

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Saleel Kulkarni   8 years AGO

Ashok does 1/80 part of work in 1 day.
He works for 10 days so 1/8th part is done, and 7/8th part is left.
Bhuwnesh does 7/8 work in 42 days, so he completes 1/48th part of work in 1 day.
When both work together the part of work completed in 1 day=(1/8)+(1+48)=(1/30)
So they require 30 days to complete the work

Option 5)

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Vijay Sharma   8 years AGO

1/80 *10=1/48
bhuvneshwar complete a work in 48 days
1/48 +1/80 = 1/30
he complete the work 30 days

Like? Yes (2) | No   

narendra   8 years AGO

1 day-1/80, 10 days-10/80,remaining=7/8 part is done in 42 days==,second can do in 1day=1/48 adding both answer will be 30

Like? Yes (2) | No   

sumit kumar   8 years AGO

Ashok 10 days work =1/80*10=1/8
rest work =1-1/8=7/8
a/c to question
7/8 work had been finished in 42 day
so 1 work will be finished in 42/(7/8)=48 days
now,
if work will work together
1 day work = 1/42+1/80=1/30
so total time taken by both = 30 days
option 5

Like? Yes (2) | No   

suryakant singh   8 years AGO

ashok can do 100/80%=5/4 % work in a day and bhuwnesh can do (100-10*5/4)/42 % work in a day
then, in 1day together they can do 280/84% then for 100% of work they take 100/(280/84)days= 30 days

Like? Yes (2) | No   

shiva   8 years AGO

ashoka one day work is 1/80
and work done in 10 days is 1/8
remaining work is 7/8
and bhuwanesh finishes in 48 days
together finish in 1/80+1/48=1/30
and = 30

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Shanakar   8 years AGO

One day work of ashok is (1/80),
In 10 days work done by ashok will be 10* (1/80)
= 1/8
Remaining work will be 1-(1/8) = (7/8)
(7/8) work is completed by bhuwnesh in 42 days
So on day work done by him is (7/8)/42
On solving this we get 1/48. This is the one day work of bhuwnesh.
Add (1/80) and (1/48) to get one day work of work done by both ashok and bhuwnesh. On adding , we will get (1/30) as answer.
So, in 30 days both of them can complete the work o if they work together.

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Rajani P C   8 years AGO

ashok 10days work =10/80=1/8
remaining work 1-1/8=7/8
now 7/8 the part completed by bhuwnesh in 42 then
bhuwnesh alone completed in 48days now ashok and bhuwnesh work together= 1/80 +1/48=30

Like? Yes (2) | No   

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

Ashok can complete the work 80 days
he works for 10 days=1/8
bhuwanesh's work=7/8x=42
x=42*8/7
x=48
x/80+x/48=1
(3x+5x)/240=1
x=240/8=30
the correct answer is 5)30

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Sunny Grover   8 years AGO

1/8th work is done by ashok in 10 days.
now 7/8th work is left which is to be done in 42 days.so total work done by bhavesh =42*8/7=48 days.
so if both works together it will take 30 days

Like? Yes (2) | No   

ramakrishnateja   8 years AGO

given part of work done by ashok is 80.
now his 10 days work=1/8. rem work=1-1/8=7/8.
now 7/8th of work is done 42 days. now whole work he does in 42*8/7=48 days. so both does work in 1/80 +1/48 =30 days.

Like? Yes (2) | No   

vignesh   8 years AGO

A can do work 1/80 work in one day
then A will do 1/8 of the work in 10 days

the remining work is 7/8

let x be the days B can complete work

If he works for 42 days
then
42/x = 7/8

thus x = 30

If they both worked together
then
1/80 + 1/48 =1/30

so 30 is the answer

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Rajani Chaganti   8 years AGO

ashok alone can do a piece of work in 80 days.
bhuwnesh can do it alone in 48days
so..both together.. 1/80 +1/48=1/30th work in one day
so 30days

Like? Yes (2) | No   

aditya kataria   8 years AGO

ashok can do a piece of work in 80 so one day work is 1/80 and the he work for 10 days so he complete 10/80 piece of work i.e 1/8 now remaining piece of work is 7/8 which is finished by bhuwnesh in 42 days therefore its one day work is 7/(8*42)=1/48 hence bhuwnesh finish the same work in 48 days when they work together then (1/80+1/48)=(16/480)=1/30 so answere will be 30

Like? Yes (2) | No   

ADITYA   8 years AGO

A one day work=1/80
A 10 day work =1/8
remaining work =7/8
B one day work =1/48
A and B both one day work =1/80 + 1/48=1/30
so two together can finish the work in 30 days

Like? Yes (3) | No (1)  

sachin sawant   8 years AGO

Ashok can do work in 1 day =1/80
For10 days he works=10*1/80=1/8
Work left=1-1/8=7/8
Bhuwnesh finishes7/8 work in 42 days
=>for 1 day he works1*7/8÷42=1/48
Together they can finish work in 48*80÷(48+80)=30days

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Abhineet kumar   8 years AGO

Ashok 1 day work is 1/80
work done by Ashok in 10 days is 1/80*10=1/8
emaining work is 1-1/8=7/8
7/8 work done by Bhuvnesh in 42 days
his 1 days work is 42*8/7=48 days
work done by together is 1/80 +1/48=1/30
so work together done in 30 days

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

P J S Sailesh Kumar Reddy   8 years AGO

10/80=1/8.
1-1/8=7/8
8/7*42=48
1/48+1/80=8/240=1/30.
30days

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Jaikumar Bhatia   8 years AGO

work done by ashok in 10 days=(1/80)*10=1/8
Remaining work=(1-1/8)=7/8
Now 7/8 work is done by Bhuvnesh in 42 days.
so whole work will be done by Bhuvnesh in 42*(8/7)=48 days
Ashok's 1 days work=1/80
Bhuvnesh's 1 days work=1/48
Then (Ashok+Bhuvnesh)'s 1 days work
=[(1/80)+(1/48)]
=8/240
1/30
so both will finish the work in 30 days
Ans is 30 days
option is (5)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Anindita Sarkar   8 years AGO

null

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

Rajitha Andela   8 years AGO

work done by Ashok in 10 days = (1/80 * 10) = 1/8

remaining work = (1-1/8) = 7/8

now, 7/8 work is done by Bhuvanesh in 42 days

whole work will be done by Bhuvanesh in (42* 8/7) = 48 days

therefore, Ajay's 1 day's work = 1/80, Bhuvanesh 1 day's work = 1/48

(Ajay+Bhuvanesh) 's 1 day work = (1/80 + 1/48) = 1/30.

Hence Ajay and Bhuvanesh will together complete the work in 30 days

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

20 Jan 2016 Marks in subject

Rajendra got first class certificate with 67.8 % in an examination of 500 marks (5 subjects & 100 marks for each subject). If he got perfect square marks in all the subjects, then what are the number of possible methods for taking these marks in all the subjects.

OPtion

1) 28
2) 20
3) 4
4) 120
5) 15
6) 12
7) 30
8) 60
9) 32
10)243

Solution

The possible combination of marks is 49, 64, 64, 81, 81 Total number of methods for providing
81 marks for any 2 subjects out of 5 subjects is 10, then number of methods for providing
64 marks for any 2 subjects out of remaining 3 subjects is 3, then 49 marks is provided
for the last subject. Hence total number of methods are 10*3*1 = 30
Option 7)

Correct Option: 7 Best Solution (9)

RAKESH   8 years AGO

339-49= 290
2*145 = 2*(81+64)

5!/2*2 = 30

Like? Yes (2) | No   

SHUBHAM   8 years AGO

took this combination... 64,64,81,81,49... So 5!/2!*2! = 30... 

Like? Yes (2) | No   

DEBMALYA GHOSAL   8 years AGO

numbers are 49, 64, 64, 81, 81
500*67.8%=339
49+64+64+81+81=339
number of possible ways are 5P5/2P2*2P2=30

Like? Yes (1) | No   

priya sunupu   8 years AGO

((64+64+81+81+49)/500)*100=67.8%
So, no. of possible methods =120/(2!*2!)=30

Like? Yes (1) | No   

The Trojan   8 years AGO

the numbers are 64, 81, 49
so 64 has 2 choices out of 5 subjects..i e. 5*4
81 has 2 choices out of 3 subjects i.e 3*2
so total combination=5*4*3*2
repated choices so (5*4*3*2)/(2*2)= 30

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Jaikumar Bhatia   8 years AGO

67.8% of 500 marks=339marks
perfect square marks in all subjects
=49,64,64,81,81=339marks
No of possible methods for taking these marks in all subjects
=5!(2!*2!)=120/4=30
Ans is 30
option is (7)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

JANARTHANAN RAM   8 years AGO

67.8% of 500 =339
All are perfect square,We get two combination
100+100+81+49+9=339 & 81+81+64+64+49=339
We neglect the 1st one because there is 9 mark(he passed in 1st class)
we take second one 81+81+64+64+49=339
total combination will be 5!/2!2!=30
so option 7 will be the ans.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

possible number is 81 81 64 64 49

possible way is 5!/2!*2!=30
option 7

Like? Yes (1) | No   

vamsi krishna   8 years AGO

67.8% of 500 marks=339 marks
Perfect square marks in all subjects
=49+64+64+81+81=339 marks
No of possible methods for taking these marks in all subjects
=5!(2!*2!)=120/4=30

Like? Yes (1) | No   

19 Jan 2016 Speed

Points A and B are 60km apart. A bus starts from A and another from B at the same time. If they go in the same direction they meet in 6 hours and if they go in opposite directions, they meet in 2 hours. The speed of the bus with greater speed is

OPtion

1) 5 km/hr
2) 10 kh/hr
3) 15 km/hr
4) 20 km/hr
5) 25 km/hr
6) 30 km/hr
7) 35 km/hr
8) 40 km/hr
9) 45 km/hr
10)50 km/hr

Solution

Let their speeds be x and y km/hr
when they move in same direction, let then meet at M. Then,
AM - BM = AB
Therefore 6x - 6y = 60
When they move in opposite direction, let them meet at N, Then
AN + BN = AB
2x + 2y = 60
Solve we get
x = 20, y = 10
Option 4) 20

Correct Option: 4 Best Solution (46)

JEPHY VARGHESE   8 years AGO

assume bus A starts from point A with greater speed A, and B from point B with B km/h.

if the 2 buses are are travelling in the same direction they will meet after 6 hrs.
assume A travels towards B,
time = distance/speed
6 = (60+x)/A = x/B
A-B = 10 -----(1)

if they travels in opposite direction they will meet after 2 hrs
distance= speed * time
distance traveled by B = 2B
traveled by A = 60-2B

2= (60-2B)/A = 2B/B

A + B = 10 -------------(2)

(1) + (2) ---->
A = 20

speed of the bus with greater speed is speed of bus A ie = 20 km/hr

Like? Yes (8) | No   

Bhavithra Devi   8 years AGO

let the speed of buses be x and y
for same direction speed=x-y
speed=distance/time
=>x-y=60/6
=>x-y=10...(1)
for opposite direction speed=x+y
=>x+y=60/2
=>x+y=30...(2)
solving (1) and (2) ,x=20,y=10
therefore speed of bus with greater speed is 20km/hr

Like? Yes (6) | No   

JENSI KARUNYA.S   8 years AGO

suppose speed of the buses A & B are respectively x km/hr &
y km/hr with x>y then,
6x-6y=60
x-y=10
2x+2y=60
x+y=30
by solving these two equations, x=20 km/hr
y=10 km/hr
therefore the greatest speed is 20 km/hr
the correct option is: 4) 20 km/hr.

Like? Yes (7) | No (2)  

Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

Let the speed of bus from A is u and from B is v,
=>(60/(u-v))=6
=>60/(u+v)=2
so u-v=10;
u+v=30;
u=20
v=10

Like? Yes (6) | No (2)  

vignesh   8 years AGO

1 speed is 20 and another is 10
because both should travel 60km in 2 hours and both meet after 6 hrs when travel in same direction

Like? Yes (4) | No   

Jamil Ahmed   8 years AGO

Let speed of the buses starting from A and B be x km/hr and y km/he respectively where speed of the bus starting from A is greater.
Again, when going in opposite direction, let the buses meet at a point C at a distance a km away from A.
So, x = a/2 or a = 2x
and y = 60-a/2 or a = 30-y
Hence, x = 30-y.

Similarly, when going in the same direction, let they meet at a point D which is b km away from B.
So, x = 60+b/6 or b = 6 (x-10) and y = b/6 or b = 6y
Hence, x = y+10.

Therefore, 30-y = y+10 or y = 10
Hence, x = 20.

Like? Yes (3) | No   

Shinjaa   8 years AGO

sol
x-y=10
x+y=30
x=20

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Berlin Jessie   8 years AGO

let the speed of two buses be x and y..
speed=distance/time
for same direction speed=x-y
therefore x-y=60/6
x-y=10
for opposite direction speed=x+y
therefore x+y=60/2
x+y=30
solving both equations, x=20,y=10
hence speed of bus with greater speed is 20km/hr

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Jaydev Dinda   8 years AGO

Let,The bus started moving from A,speed=X
The Bus started moving from B,Speed =Y
If two buses are opposite direction,
60/(X+Y)=2
=>X+Y=30 .....(1)
If two buses are same direction,
60/(X-Y)=6
=>X-Y=10 ....(2)
after solving eqn1 & eqn 2,
we can get X=20
Y=10...
so The Speed of the Bus with greater speed is 4)20 km/hr.

Like? Yes (2) | No   

vikash ranjan   8 years AGO

let two speed s1, s2;
(60)/(s2-s1)= 6 hr; s2 - s1 =10;

(60) /(s1+s2) = 2hr;
60/(s1+ s1+ 10) = 2hr;
s1=10;
s2=20;

Like? Yes (2) | No   

GOURANGA SUNDAR MANDAL   8 years AGO

let greater speed of one bus is x km/h ,and slower speed of another bus is y km/h
so,when they goes to same direction , the bus which start from B point,it covers 6y km ..and others bus covers 6x km...then they meet
so the 1st equ is..6x=6y+60.....
so x-y=10
when they goes to oposite direction...they covers 2x and 2y km
so the equ 2 is 2x+2y=60
so..x+y=30
now we get calculating equ 1 and equ 2....x=20. and y=10
so option 4 is correct answer

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Ankita Dutta Majumder   8 years AGO

60/(x-y)=6 60/(x+y)=2
x=(60+6y)/6 60-2y/2=x

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Isha Saxena   8 years AGO

When the buses from A and B move in same direction-
then they meet after covering 120 km and 60 km respectively at a rate of 20 km/h and 10 km/h respectively.

When the buses from A and B are moving in opposite direction-
they meet after covering 40 km and 20 km respectively.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

harshwardhan   8 years AGO

let x be faster and y be slower speed x+y = 60/2 and 6x - 6y =60 solving x= 20 y= 10

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Anurag Bawankar   8 years AGO

(A+B)*2=60
A+B=30

(A-B)*6=60
A-B=10

From two equations A=20 B=10
Higher speed A=20

Like? Yes (1) | No   

TARUN CHAUHAN   8 years AGO

let x and y be speed of two buses

x+y=30
x-y=10

solving we get x=20 and y=10
hence the answer is 20km/hr

Like? Yes (1) | No   

mustain ahmed   8 years AGO

2=60/x+y
6=60/x-y.....after calculations x=20
y=10...so,ans is 20 km/hr

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sumit kumar   8 years AGO

from the question
let bus A speed is x km/h, bus B has y km/h
when bus in same direction
60/x-y =6
x-y=10 ...........(1)
60/x+y=2
x+y=30...........(2)
solving (1) and (2)
x=20km/h
y=10km/h
so ans is 20km/h option 4

Like? Yes (1) | No   

RITESH KUMAR JHA   8 years AGO

60/x1+x2=6
60/x1-x2=2
from here x1=20.
x1=speed of busA
x2=speed of bus B

Like? Yes (1) | No   

ANKIT KALE   8 years AGO

Same Direction
RELATIVE Speed will be (A-B)
A-B=60/6=10.....[1]
Opposite Direction
RELATIVE speed will be (A+B)
A+B=60/2=30......[2]
solve [1] and [2] simultaneously
A=20 km/hr
B=10 km/hr

Like? Yes (1) | No   

chandan kumar mania   8 years AGO

let one is going x km/ hr and another y km/ hr
then if they move in opposite direction
60/x+y=2 x+y=30 .....?...(1)
t=distance/ speed
if they move in same direction
6x- 6y=60. x-y=10...........(2)
solving equation 1 and 2 we get
grater speed =20 km/hr.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

v.pravalika   8 years AGO

speed of bus from A=x km/hr
from B=y km/hr
same direction:
relative speed=x-y km/hr
x-y=60/6=10km/hr
x-y=10 km/hr -------------1
opposite direction:
relative spped=x+y km/hr
x+y=60/2=30 km/hr
x+y=30 km/hr -------------2
solving 1&2
x=20 km/hr
y=10 km/hr
bus with greater speed=20 km/hr

Like? Yes (1) | No   

meghana   8 years AGO

x-y=10 -----1
x+y=15 -----2
solving 1 and 2
x=20 ,y=10
so greater speed bus is x=20km/hr

Like? Yes (1) | No   

abhishek   8 years AGO

suppose bus from A & B speed id x & y respectively
same direction time of meeting=distance/(x-y)
so x-y=10
opposite direction time of meeting = distance/(x+y)
so x+y=30
therefore x=20,y=10

Like? Yes (1) | No   

v.sudha   8 years AGO

let speed of bus from A=xkm/hr
let speed of bus from B=ykm/hr
same direction:
relative speed=x-y km/hr
x-y=60/6=10km/hr
x-y=10km/hr ----------->1
opposite direction:
relative speed=x+y km/hr
x+y=60/2=30km/hr
x+y=30km/hr -------->2
solving 1&2
we get x=20 km/hr
y=10km/hr
the bus with greater speed=20km/hr

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MD.IFTEKHAR ANSARI   8 years AGO

let x,y be speed of bus at A and B respectively.
eqn for same direction..
60=2(x+y)
or x+y=30
eqn for opposite direction..
60=6(x-y)
or x-y=10
after solving eqns
x=20(speed of the bus with greater speed)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Manish Kumar   8 years AGO

6=60/x-y
x-y= 10 & ..........(i)
2=60/x+y
x+y=30..............(ii)
from (I) & (ii)
x=20
y=10

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Saleel Kulkarni   8 years AGO

Let the distance traveled by the two buses be (60+x)km from point A at where they meet while going in same direction and the distance traveled from B be y km while going in opposite direction.
So for going in same direction,
speed of 1st bus=(60+x)/6 km/hr
and for going in opposite direction,
speed = (60-y)/2 km/hr
so speed of 1st bus is
(60+x)/6=(60-y)/2
==>x+3y=120__________equation 1

Now speed of 2nd bus in same direction = x/6 km/hr
and in opposite direction = y/2
==>x=3y________________equation 2

so putting equation 2 in equation 1, we get
x=60km and y=20km

So speed of 1st bus = (60+60)/6 = 20km/hr
and speed of 2nd bus = 20/2 =10km/hr

Option 4)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

B.DINESH KUMAR   8 years AGO

speed of bus A is 20
speed of bus B is 10
then only cdn 1 & 2 satisfy

Like? Yes (1) | No   

JEGATHA.H   8 years AGO

time= distance/speed
let speed a = x & speed b= y
same direction moving then speed=x-y
opposite direction then speed=x+y
based on formula 20km/hr

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Gaurab Kumar Jha   8 years AGO

let the speed of buse's are x and y,
A/Q 6y-6x=60 and 2x+2y=60,
and after solving we get y=20 and x=10,
so the answer will be option 4 i,e 20kmph

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

x-y=60/6=10
x+y=60/2=30
after solving equation we get x=20
y=10
greater speed is 20kmph
option 4

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Harsh Poddar   8 years AGO

let speed of the faster train be x and the speed of the slower train be y
distance between them is 60 km
when the run in same direction they reach in 6 hrs so relative speed is 60/6=10 x-y=10
when they travel in opposite direction their relative speed is 60/2=30 x+y=30
solving the two equations x-y=10 and x+y=30 we get x=20,y=10
so speed of faster train is 20
option 4

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

If speeds of the buses starting from A & B are 'x' & 'y' km/hr respectively then
60/(x-y)=6 or x-y=10 ---(i) &
60/(x+y)=2 or x+y=30 ---(ii)
On solving, x=20, y=10
So speed of the bus with greater speed=20 km/hr
Option 4)

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

satish ojha   8 years AGO

vecolity = distance / time
opposite direction velocity added ( relative velocity )

x+y=60/2
same direction velocity sub ( relative velocity )
x-y=60/6
2x=40
x=20

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

NIKHIL JAIN   8 years AGO

Relative speed of bus going in same direction= (x-y)= 60/6=10
Relative speed of bus travelling in opposite direction =(x+y) = 60/2=30
On solving 2*x= 40
x=20kmph
y=10kmph

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Yashi Das   8 years AGO

Assumptions,
Speed of bus A is a km/hr
Speed of bus B is b km/hr
and a>b
6a-6b=60
2a+2b=60
therefore,a=20 km/hr
b=10 km/hr
So,the speed of the bus with greater speed is 20km/hr i.e. bus A

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

bhaskar   8 years AGO

x+y=60/2
x-y=60/6
x=20
y=10

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

harsh dhir   8 years AGO

B=A+60
for same direction
A will meet B in 6 hours.Since B is 60 km ahead of A at start At the speed of 20 km/hr,A will cover 120 km & B will cover 60 km at the speed of 10 km/hr.Since B is already have a start of 60 km,it will have cover 120 km.

For Opposite Direction
A will cover 40 km at the speed of 20 km/hr & B will cover 20 km at the speed of 10 km/hr.So they will meet in 2 hrs. because 40+20=60.

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

x-y=60/6=10
x+y=60/2=30
Solving this equations we get
x=20
y=10
Option 4

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Raghav   8 years AGO

A + B = 60/2
A - B = 60/6

A = 20 B = 10

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

Param   8 years AGO

from option dist gap 60m
if Va=20km /h *2=40m from a
Vb=10*2=20m from b
when same dir=20*6=120m
from a ,10*6=60from b

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

ROHIT KUMAR DUBEY   8 years AGO

Let speed of bus start from ponit A be A and that of point B be B.
Also let A>B.
6A-6B=60
A-B=10.........I
2A+2B=60
A+B=30......II
Solving above equations
A=20 and B=10

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

DEBMALYA GHOSAL   8 years AGO

60/x+y = 2 ; 60/x-y = 6
x+y=30; x-y=10
x=20

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

alamuri vijaya sekhar reddy   8 years AGO

60= 2A + 2B
6B= 6A-(2A+2B)
solving above we A= 20 km/hr

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

velmala gangadhar   8 years AGO

let v1 be the velocity of first bus and..
v2 be the velocity of second bus...
then v1+v2=30..v1-V2=10..then v1=20 and v2=10 kmph........

Like? Yes (1) | No (1)  

18 Jan 2016 Sequence

What is the next number of the following sequence
14, 16.5, 28.5, 36, 45,

OPtion

1) 44
2) 54.5
3) 47
4) 52.5
5) 49
6) 47.5
7) 48
8) 49.5
9) 46
10)54

Solution

14
14 + (1+4)/2 = 14 + 5/2 = 14+2.5 = 16.5
16.5 + (1+6+5) = 16.5 + 12 = 16.5+12 = 28.5
28.5 + (2+8+5)/2 = 28.5 + 15/2 = 28.5+7.5 = 36
36 + (3+6) = 36 + 9 = 45
Similarly
45 + (4+5)/2 = 45 + (9/2) = 45+4.5 = 49.5
Option 8)

Correct Option: 8 Best Solution (17)

JANARTHANAN RAM   8 years AGO

14+(1+4)/2=16.5
16.5+(1+6+5)=28.5
28.5+(2+8+5)/2=36
36+(3+6)=45
45+(4+5)/2=49.5

Like? Yes (5) | No   

susmit   8 years AGO

take the total of the digits add half of it
for the next digit add full
then again half
so 45+.5(4+5)= 49.5

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Devendra Marghade   8 years AGO

Add the half the sum of digits & sum of the digits alternatively.
14+(1+4)/2=16.5
16.5+(1+6+5)=28.5
28.5+(2+8+5)/2=36
36+(3+6)=45
45+(4+5)/2=49.5
Option 8)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

ROHIT KUMAR DUBEY   8 years AGO

adding (sum of digit/2 odd index)) to odd index of sequence to get next and adding sum of digit(even index) to even index sequence to get next.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Jaikumar Bhatia   8 years AGO

(1+4)/2=2.5+14=16.5
(1+6+5)/1=12+16.5=28.5
(2+8+5)/2=7.5+28.5=36
(3+6)/1=9+36=45
(4+5)/2=4.5+45=49.5
Ans is 49.5
Option is (8)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Jamil Ahmed   8 years AGO

Half of the sum of the digits of the number, and sum of the digits number, alternately are added to the number to get the next number.

14,
14 + (1+4)/2 = 16.5,
16.5 + (1+6+5) = 28.5,
28.5 + (2+8+5)/2 = 36,
36 + (3+6) = 45,
45 + (4+5)/2 = 49.5

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Aakash Beniwal   8 years AGO

add digit and half it and add, in second add digit and add... and so on...

Like? Yes (1) | No   

RITESH KUMAR JHA   8 years AGO

14+2.5=16.5
16.5=(1+6+5=12)
16.5+12=28.5
28.5=(2+8+5=15, 15/2=7.5)
28.5+7.5=36
36=(3+6=9)
36+9=45
45=(4+5=9, 9/2=4.5)
45+4.5=49.5 is answer.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

sumit kumar   8 years AGO

14 16.5 28.5 36 45 .......
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6)
14+(1+4)/2=16.5
16.5+(1+6+5)=28.5
28.5+(2+8+5)/2=36
36+(3+6)=45
45+(4+5)/2=49.5
option 8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

GOURANGA SUNDAR MANDAL   8 years AGO

1st number =14+(1+4)*.5=16.5
2nd number=16.5+(1+6+5)*1=28.5
3rd number=28.5+(2+8+5)*.5=36
4th number=36+(3+6)*1=45
5th number=45+(4+5)*.5=49.5
...so option 8 is correct answer

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Vibhay Thakur   8 years AGO

14+2.5=16.5----(number+sum of all digits of number/2)
16.5+12=28.5----(number+sum of all digits of number)
28.5+7.5=36
36+9=45
45+4.5=49.5

Like? Yes (1) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

14+(1+4)/2=16.5
16.5+(1+6+5)=28.5
28.5+(2+8+5)/2=36
36+(3+6)=45
45+(4+5)/2=49.5
option 8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

PRABHAT KUMAR   8 years AGO

14+(1+4)/2=16.5
16.5+(1+6+5)=28.5
28.5+(2+8+5)/2=36
36+(3+6)=45
45+(4+5)/2=49.5
Option 8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

swetha rangaraj   8 years AGO

14+(1+4)/2=16.5
16.5+(1+6+5)=28.5
28.5+(2+8+5)/2=36
36+(3+6)=45
45+(4+5)/2=49.5

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Saleel Kulkarni   8 years AGO

For 1st 2 two numbers add all the digits and divide it by two and add it in 1st no and for next two nos only add digits and add it in previous no. Follow this rule for next nos.
14+((1+4)/2)=16.5
16.5+(1+6+5)=28.5
28.5+((2+8+5)/2)=36
36+(3+6)=45
45+((4+5)/2)=49.5

Option 8)

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Ankita Rawa   8 years AGO

Ans is 49.5
14=(1+4)/2=2.5+14=16.5
16.5=(1+6+5)/1=12+16.5=28.5
28.5=(2+8+5)/2=7.5+28.5=36
36=(3+6)/1=9+36=45
45=(4+5)/2=4.5+45=49.5

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

14=>(1+4)/2=2.5+14=16.5
16.5=>(1+6+5)/1=12+16.5=28.5
28.5=>(2+8+5)/2=7.5+28.5=36
36=>(3+6)/1=9+36=45
45=>(4+5)/2=4.5+45=49.5

Like? Yes (1) | No   

15 Jan 2016 Mixture

Two vessels A and B contain milk and water mixed in the ratio 5:2 and 8:5 respectively. Find the ratio in which these mixture are to be mixed to get a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio 9:4.

OPtion

1) 5:2
2) 3:4
3) 2:9
4) 2:5
5) 4:5
6) 3:2
7) 5:7
8) 8:13
9) 7:2
10)1:4

Solution

Let the C.P. of milk be Re. 1 per litre
Milk in 1 litre mix in A = 5/7 litre
Milk in 1 litre mix in B = 8/13 litre
Milk in 1 litre mix. of this mix = 9/13 litre
C.P. of litre mix in A = Rs 5/7
C.P. of 1 litre mix in B = Rs. 8/13
Mean Price = Rs. 9/13
Therefore
Mix in A : Mix in B = 1/13 : 9/91 = 7:2
Option 9)

Correct Option: 9 Best Solution (15)

Ram Kumar Prajapati   8 years AGO

Milk in Container A= 5/7 of A total
Milk in container B=8/13 of B total
Milk in the mixture = 9/13 of (A+B)
From allegation Ratio of mixing = (9/13 - 8/13) / (5/7 - 9/13)
=7:2

Like? Yes (16) | No (1)  

DEBMALYA GHOSAL   8 years AGO

let cp of milk 1rs. per litre.
so.7 litre mixture A contains 5litre milk.
so cp of container A milk is 5/7 rs.
similarly for container B cp of milk is 8/13.
for container C, cp of milk is 9/13.
the by alligation rule..
5/7 8/13
9/13
1/13 : 2/91
or, 7:2 (option 9)

Like? Yes (11) | No (3)  

Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

using the principle of alligation,
{(9/13)-(8/13)}
--------------------
{(5/7)-(9/13)
=(7/2)

Like? Yes (11) | No (3)  

Yashi Das   8 years AGO

Using alligation,
Proportion of A in the mixture= 63/91 -56/91=7/91
Proportion of B in the mixture=65/91 - 63/91=2/91
Ratio of A to B int he mixture=7/91 : 2/91=7:2

Like? Yes (5) | No (1)  

kondapuram tirumalreddy   8 years AGO

consider milk
cp of milk in A =5/7
cp of water in B =8//13
cp of final mixture =9/13
by the rule of alligation method we get
5/7 8/13
9/13
1/13 2/91
after simplicatiion we get the answer as
7:2

Like? Yes (4) | No   

MRITUNJAY   8 years AGO

by allocation
5/7. 8/13
9/13
7. 2

7:2
option 9

Like? Yes (4) | No (1)  

mustain ahmed   8 years AGO

x from A and y from B..then
(x*5/7)+(y*8/13)=9(x+y)/13...After calculation... x/y=7/2...so,option-9 is correct answer.

Like? Yes (4) | No (1)  

GOURANGA SUNDAR MANDAL   8 years AGO

let x portion of 1st mixture and y portion of 2nd mixure was mixed....then
respect to question..{(5x/7 +8y/13)/(2x/7 +5y/13)}=9/4....equ 1
then calculate equ 1 ..we get x:y=7:2
so option 9 is correct answer

Like? Yes (4) | No (1)  

unnati gupta   8 years AGO

fraction of milk= 5/7 =65/91
fraction of water=8/13 =56/91
fraction of milk in mixture = 9/13 =63/91
using alligation,
proportion of a in the mixture =63/91- 56/91 =7/91
proportion of b in the mixture =65/91- 63/91 =2/91
ratio of a to b in the mixture =7:2

Like? Yes (2) | No   

swetha rangaraj   8 years AGO

water in A=5/17
water in B=8/13
5/17 8/13
9/13

(9/13 - 8/13) : (5/17 - 9/13)
1/13 : 2/91
1 : 2/7
ratio = 7:2

Like? Yes (4) | No (3)  

Anura Jain   8 years AGO

We can take ratio either of milk or water and can solve accordingly
Taking ratio of milk in A and B as 5/7 and 8/13 respectively and their mean as 9/13 in vessel C
Lastly by applying rules of alligations we will get our answer

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

v.sudha   8 years AGO

let C.P of milk =Re.1
A:milk =5/7
B:milk=8/13
mixture:milk=9/13
By the rule of alligation
5/7 8/13

9/13

1/13 2/91

required ratio =7:2

Like? Yes (2) | No (1)  

NIKHIL JAIN   8 years AGO

It can be solved using alligation and find that the answer is 7/2

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

ROHIT KUMAR DUBEY   8 years AGO

In a CP of 1 liter milk rs 5/7 and that of B=rs 8/13,mixture=rs9/13
by allegation
5/7 8/13
9/13
1/13 2/91
=7:2

Like? Yes (2) | No (3)  

mary   8 years AGO

let c.p of milk be Rs .1 per litre
milk in 1 litre mix of A =5/7 litre;
milk in 1litre mix of B =8/13 litre;
milk in 1litre mix of C =9/13 litre;
mean price =Rs 9/13
rule of alligation,
quantity of quantity of dearer)=(c.p of dearer)-(mean price)/(mean price)-(c.p of cheaper)
=(5/7)-(9/13)/(9/13)-(8/13)
=7:2

Like? Yes (1) | No (2)  

14 Jan 2016 Probability

In a lottery coupon there are 15 prizes and 25 blanks. What is the probability of getting prize ?

OPtion

1) 5/7
2) 2/7
3) 3/8
4) 1/5
5) 2/5
6) 2/9
7) 1/25
8) 1/8
9) 1/3
10)1/15

Solution

P(getting a prize) = 15/ 15+25 = 15/40 = 3/8

Option 3)

Correct Option: 3 Best Solution (13)

Shagun Chaudhary   8 years AGO

probability of winning prize=(15/(15+25))=15/40=3/8

Like? Yes (8) | No   

Ram Kumar Prajapati   8 years AGO

Suppose you have 40 Coupons in which only 15 contains some prizes rest having no prizes then for getting prize favorable outcome=15, So probability=15/40=3/8

Like? Yes (2) | No   

debanjan   8 years AGO

Total number of prizes 15
And blanks 25

Now the possible number of outcomes = 15+25=40

Number of prizes /total outcomes

15/40=3/8

Like? Yes (2) | No   

Vivek Ratan   8 years AGO

P(Np)=Np/(Np+Nb)
Np=No of prizes
Nb=No of blanks
On solving using above formula, we get 3/8 as ans.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

NIKHIL JAIN   8 years AGO

Total Number Of Outcomes Possible n(s)= 15+25=40
Total Number of prize, n(E)= 15
Probability of getting prize P(E)= n(E)/n(s)= 15/40=3/8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

v.sudha   8 years AGO

p(getting a prize)=15/(15+25)
=15/40
=3/8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

UDAY KUMAR BEJJAM   8 years AGO

Favorable events : 15.
Total Events : 15+25 = 40.
Ans = 15/40 = 3/8.

Like? Yes (1) | No   

N.Vennela Rani   8 years AGO

possible outcomes=15,total outcomes=40,probability=15/40=3/8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

vishal   8 years AGO

total possibilites=15+25=40
possiblities favouring the requirement=15
p(getting a prize)=15/40=3/8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

swetha rangaraj   8 years AGO

prizes+blanks=40
prizes=15
winning probability=15/40=3/8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

richa   8 years AGO

probability of getting prize =prize/prize+blanks
so P(p)=15/(15+25)=15/40=3/8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Sumit kumar   8 years AGO

the total no of coupons are 40.
probability of getting a prize is 15/40= 3/8

Like? Yes (1) | No   

Ankita Rawa   8 years AGO

total coupons are 15(prizes)+25(blanks)=40
probability will be 15/40=3/8

Like? Yes (1) | No